<p>Lately, I have been pondering whether the idea of <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistic_determinism" rel="nofollow">linguistic determinism</a> has empirical support. </p>

<p><strong>Background:</strong> I know a couple languages, and I am proficient in <strong>2</strong> of them. So sometimes if I need to think through a problem, I use one of them to do one thing and another to do another thing.  </p>

<p>I personally feel like I can accomplish more by using these two different languages. So, can this be true, do we just think the same way in, no matter that the language. Does language actually play a part in thinking? Or is it just me.</p>

<p>Also, say I did not know any language, how would I think? This is a rather ambiguous question here, but would that person think through their own concepts and schemas that they developed, in their 'own language'?</p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2015-05-04T04:44:58.147Z
Welcome to CogSci! Good question, I clarified a little bit and added a link.
Christian Hummeluhr
CC BY-SA 3.0
2015-05-04T18:44:03.913Z
I would recommend the section of "if I didn't know any language, how would I think" being moved to a separate question. (:
Seanny123
CC BY-SA 4.0
2021-10-26T01:44:12.230Z
The Wikipedia article linked to in the question reviews evidence for this hypothesis (I realize that link was added by an editor) - is there anything specific that you would like to know about that is not covered there?  For the second question, see [How does a language deprived person think?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/10579/7001)
Arnon Weinberg
<cognitive-psychology><social-psychology><language>
What is the evidence for linguistic determinism?
Asker123
# What is the evidence for linguistic determinism?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2015-05-03)

Lately, I have been pondering whether the idea of [linguistic determinism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistic_determinism) has empirical support.

**Background:** I know a couple languages, and I am proficient in **2** of them. So sometimes if I need to think through a problem, I use one of them to do one thing and another to do another thing.

I personally feel like I can accomplish more by using these two different languages. So, can this be true, do we just think the same way in, no matter that the language. Does language actually play a part in thinking? Or is it just me.

Also, say I did not know any language, how would I think? This is a rather ambiguous question here, but would that person think through their own concepts and schemas that they developed, in their 'own language'?

**Tags:** cognitive-psychology, social-psychology, language

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Welcome to CogSci! Good question, I clarified a little bit and added a link.  
> **username_2**: I would recommend the section of "if I didn't know any language, how would I think" being moved to a separate question. (:  
> **username_3**: The Wikipedia article linked to in the question reviews evidence for this hypothesis (I realize that link was added by an editor) - is there anything specific that you would like to know about that is not covered there?  For the second question, see [How does a language deprived person think?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/10579/7001)  

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