<p>You don't really need a reason to not implement a T-V distinction. Just because your native language does, doesn't mean every language does.</p>
<p>But if you insist: In German, &quot;du&quot; (the T pronoun) is used to address God, suggesting that they (or rather, the people in charge of these things want them to) think of God as more a friend than a ruler. Perhaps your therianthropes have a populist leader who insists he's &quot;just one of the guys&quot;, so pluralis majestatis (i.e., the royal we) never got off the ground. No royal we, no royal you; no royal you, no T-V distinction.</p>
<p>Of course, this is a significant departure from human psychology, as plural=power is an old, old cheat code, and we love power and flaunting it. But you've already stated that these people are Homo, but not Homo sapiens. Different species within a genus can have significant psychological differences, such as that between Pan troglodytes (the chimpanzee) and Pan paniscus (the bonobo). All of this, however, is worldbuilding - I'd suggest any follow-ups go there.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-05-31T17:16:22.740Z
Also, I wouldn't call a language with a T and a V pronoun the "opposite" of English - that honor would go to a language with only a T pronoun, as opposed to the V pronoun of English
No Name
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-06-01T11:11:38.587Z
To complicate things further, the standard formal address in German is not the 2nd  person plural (*ihr*) but the 3rd person plural (*Sie*). 2nd p. pl. ("*ihrzen*") can be used in some contexts (e.g., dialects in rural regions) as a semi-formal address, but this is non-standard.
Sir Cornflakes
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-06-10T10:04:20.333Z
the use of T-pronouns for God is a historical accident, although it has been subject to later rationalisations. Hebrew has no T-V distinction and so uses singular pronouns for God. Latin and Greek also did not generally make use of a V-pronoun as a respectful 2nd person and so the early translations used by Christians preserve the use of the singular from Hebrew. Later translations T-pronouns largely because that's what's always been done. If Greek or Latin had had a robust T-V distinction, chances are we would see God referred to with V-pronouns today
Tristan
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-06-10T10:12:03.667Z
@Tristan That makes sense, but the fact remains that the church decided to rationalize rather than retranslate (admittedly, mostly due to the belief that the Bible was God's word and even merely translating it was borderline sacrilegious, but still)
No Name
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-05-31T17:14:10.010Z
2022-05-31T17:14:10.010Z
No Name
<p>I agree with most of No Name's answer, but I disagree with &quot;this is a significant departure from human psychology&quot;.</p>
<p>Look at this map (<a href="https://linguisticmaps.tumblr.com/post/141341444083/honorifics-and-t-v-distinctions-in-pronouns-or" rel="noreferrer">via linguisticmaps.tumblr.com</a>) showing which languages in the world have a T-V distinction—that is, a formality distinction in the second-person pronouns.</p>
<p><a href="https://i.sstatic.net/RXNrs.png" rel="noreferrer"><img src="https://i.sstatic.net/RXNrs.png" alt="map showing distribution" /></a></p>
<p>A T-V distinction is common in Europe, and more elaborate formality systems are more prominent in Asia, but large parts of the world (and in fact most of the world's languages) don't have such a distinction. In Swahili, for example, a single person is always <em>wewe</em> and a group of people is always <em>ninyi</em> (or <em>nyinyi</em> depending on dialect), whether you're showing respect or not. Instead, respect can be shown in other ways, such as adding a title like <em>bwana</em> (the equivalent of English &quot;you&quot; vs &quot;you, sir&quot;). Even in Europe, in Classical Latin the plural pronoun <em>vōs</em> (presumably the source of your <em>Wos</em>) was primarily used for groups of people; the T-V distinction was a later development in Romance.</p>
<p>So you don't need any justification at all for your language to work that way; it's how most languages on earth already work.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-06-02T20:29:45.913Z
2022-06-02T20:29:45.913Z
Draconis
<p>In English, you is used both in the second-person singular and in the second-person plural (thou is now only used in some old proverbs and old expressions).</p>
<p>At the opposite, French (my native language) has a T-V distinction: <em>tu</em> is always used when addressing to only one person, but <em>vous</em> is often used when addressing to multiple people; however, sometimes, <em>vous</em> is used for only one person despite being always syntactically plural. When addressing to only one person, <em>vous</em> is reserved for strangers, or people older than oneself, or authority figures.</p>
<p>In my world (in the sense of a fictional universe I want to create), in the most spoken language used by therianthropes (their scientific name is <em>Homo pilosus</em>, so they are humans, just not <em>Homo sapiens</em>) (<em>Homo pilosus</em> means &quot;hairy human&quot;), <em>Di</em> is exclusively used in the second-person singular (even when addressing to a monarch, a president, a stranger, a deity, an elder, etc.) and <em>Wos</em> is exclusively used in the second-person plural (in their language, pronouns are always capitalised) (if you ask me, in the most spoken language used by therianthropes, the w is pronounced like the English w as in &quot;world&quot;).</p>
<p>So, I wonder why would a language have a second-person pronoun system opposite to English.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-05-30T09:34:06.123Z
What do you mean by "opposite to English"?
Oliver Mason
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-05-30T13:08:38.433Z
I was taught that "tu" was familiar and "vous" was formal. But in Québec, "vous" is rarely heard.
shawnhcorey
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-05-31T17:24:30.037Z
I would get rid of a lot of the parentheticals here. You don't need to tell us how <w> is pronounced, or that pronouns are always capitalized, or what "pilosus" means, or even what you mean by "my world". About the only one that actually is important is that therianthropes are not _Homo sapiens_, which fact I use in my answer but edges it into the scope of se.worldbuilding.
No Name
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-06-01T06:20:14.167Z
I second the question by @OliverMason . To me, the opposite of the English system would be to use the singular pronoun to address a group. In Sweden this is be the natural state of affairs. We have one pronoun for addressing singular people and one to address multiple people, and use them accordingly. The king is usually addressed as "the King", as "Would the King like to see?". There used to be a system for polite plural, sometimes used by people trying to be overly formal, almost but not quite like English "thou". More recently, we used the 3rd person singular instead to address strangers.
Edvin
<pronouns>
Why would a language lack a T-V distinction, but with a pronoun system that is the opposite of English?
# Why would a language lack a T-V distinction, but with a pronoun system that is the opposite of English?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2022-05-30)

In English, you is used both in the second-person singular and in the second-person plural (thou is now only used in some old proverbs and old expressions).

At the opposite, French (my native language) has a T-V distinction: *tu* is always used when addressing to only one person, but *vous* is often used when addressing to multiple people; however, sometimes, *vous* is used for only one person despite being always syntactically plural. When addressing to only one person, *vous* is reserved for strangers, or people older than oneself, or authority figures.

In my world (in the sense of a fictional universe I want to create), in the most spoken language used by therianthropes (their scientific name is *Homo pilosus*, so they are humans, just not *Homo sapiens*) (*Homo pilosus* means "hairy human"), *Di* is exclusively used in the second-person singular (even when addressing to a monarch, a president, a stranger, a deity, an elder, etc.) and *Wos* is exclusively used in the second-person plural (in their language, pronouns are always capitalised) (if you ask me, in the most spoken language used by therianthropes, the w is pronounced like the English w as in "world").

So, I wonder why would a language have a second-person pronoun system opposite to English.

**Tags:** pronouns

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: What do you mean by "opposite to English"?  
> **username_2**: I was taught that "tu" was familiar and "vous" was formal. But in Québec, "vous" is rarely heard.  
> **username_3**: I would get rid of a lot of the parentheticals here. You don't need to tell us how <w> is pronounced, or that pronouns are always capitalized, or what "pilosus" means, or even what you mean by "my world". About the only one that actually is important is that therianthropes are not _Homo sapiens_, which fact I use in my answer but edges it into the scope of se.worldbuilding.  
> **username_4**: I second the question by @username_1 . To me, the opposite of the English system would be to use the singular pronoun to address a group. In Sweden this is be the natural state of affairs. We have one pronoun for addressing singular people and one to address multiple people, and use them accordingly. The king is usually addressed as "the King", as "Would the King like to see?". There used to be a system for polite plural, sometimes used by people trying to be overly formal, almost but not quite like English "thou". More recently, we used the 3rd person singular instead to address strangers.  

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## 2 answers

### Answer by username_7 on 2022-06-02. Score: 6 | Accepted answer

I agree with most of username_3's answer, but I disagree with "this is a significant departure from human psychology".

Look at this map ([via linguisticmaps.tumblr.com](https://linguisticmaps.tumblr.com/post/141341444083/honorifics-and-t-v-distinctions-in-pronouns-or)) showing which languages in the world have a T-V distinction—that is, a formality distinction in the second-person pronouns.

[![map showing distribution](https://i.sstatic.net/RXNrs.png)](https://i.sstatic.net/RXNrs.png)

A T-V distinction is common in Europe, and more elaborate formality systems are more prominent in Asia, but large parts of the world (and in fact most of the world's languages) don't have such a distinction. In Swahili, for example, a single person is always *wewe* and a group of people is always *ninyi* (or *nyinyi* depending on dialect), whether you're showing respect or not. Instead, respect can be shown in other ways, such as adding a title like *bwana* (the equivalent of English "you" vs "you, sir"). Even in Europe, in Classical Latin the plural pronoun *vōs* (presumably the source of your *Wos*) was primarily used for groups of people; the T-V distinction was a later development in Romance.

So you don't need any justification at all for your language to work that way; it's how most languages on earth already work.


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### Answer by username_3 on 2022-05-31. Score: 3

You don't really need a reason to not implement a T-V distinction. Just because your native language does, doesn't mean every language does.

But if you insist: In German, "du" (the T pronoun) is used to address God, suggesting that they (or rather, the people in charge of these things want them to) think of God as more a friend than a ruler. Perhaps your therianthropes have a populist leader who insists he's "just one of the guys", so pluralis majestatis (i.e., the royal we) never got off the ground. No royal we, no royal you; no royal you, no T-V distinction.

Of course, this is a significant departure from human psychology, as plural=power is an old, old cheat code, and we love power and flaunting it. But you've already stated that these people are Homo, but not Homo sapiens. Different species within a genus can have significant psychological differences, such as that between Pan troglodytes (the chimpanzee) and Pan paniscus (the bonobo). All of this, however, is worldbuilding - I'd suggest any follow-ups go there.

> **Comments:**
> **username_3**: Also, I wouldn't call a language with a T and a V pronoun the "opposite" of English - that honor would go to a language with only a T pronoun, as opposed to the V pronoun of English  
> **username_5**: To complicate things further, the standard formal address in German is not the 2nd  person plural (*ihr*) but the 3rd person plural (*Sie*). 2nd p. pl. ("*ihrzen*") can be used in some contexts (e.g., dialects in rural regions) as a semi-formal address, but this is non-standard.  
> **username_6**: the use of T-pronouns for God is a historical accident, although it has been subject to later rationalisations. Hebrew has no T-V distinction and so uses singular pronouns for God. Latin and Greek also did not generally make use of a V-pronoun as a respectful 2nd person and so the early translations used by Christians preserve the use of the singular from Hebrew. Later translations T-pronouns largely because that's what's always been done. If Greek or Latin had had a robust T-V distinction, chances are we would see God referred to with V-pronouns today  
> **username_3**: @username_6 That makes sense, but the fact remains that the church decided to rationalize rather than retranslate (admittedly, mostly due to the belief that the Bible was God's word and even merely translating it was borderline sacrilegious, but still)  

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