<p>Only if you factor in relativistic differences! Someone standing on the equator is traveling at about 464 m/s whereas someone standing at 41° Latitude is only traveling at about 350 m/s. Hence the person at the equator would appear to be 4.6E-06 seconds per year slower in time than the person at 41° Latitude.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2019-09-02T04:19:48.687Z
*grin* assuming you're referring to Santiago's answer - no, it doesn't factor in relativistic differences :-) Welcome to Stackexchange. I've edited your answer to stand alone, rather than reading like a response to another answer. THat's because this isn't a discussion forum, and answers may appear in different orders in the future. If I've misunderstood your meaning, please let me know.
Semidiurnal Simon
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2019-09-01T20:50:01.497Z
2019-09-02T04:20:28.233Z
2019-09-02T04:20:28.233Z
Probablywrong
<p>Earth's rotation has a fixed angular speed, therefore time is the same across the entire surface.</p>

<p>Even though the tangential speed (speed of the point in the surface) is different in each place of the surface, what counts here is the angular speed (the speed of rotation). Different tangential speed compensate the distance to the rotation axis by:</p>

<p>(angular speed) = (tangential speed)/(distance to axis)</p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-01-29T00:01:26.837Z
2016-01-29T08:18:12.287Z
2016-01-29T08:18:12.287Z
Santiago
<p>Assume we have two cities A and B both at the same longitude (say $45^{0}$ E) but at different latitudes say $8^{0}$N and $90^{0}$ N. Can we get a time difference between these two cities. I raised this question because the shape of the Earth is oblate spheroid,i.e., bulges out at the equator and constricts at the poles. In 24 hours the Earth rotates once. But the circle at the equator traversed by the sun is not equal to the high latitudes because of the shape of the Earth. This difference in circle traversed by the sun makes a difference in time between the two latitudes. Am I wrong to put it that way? </p>

<p>To elaborate a little bit, one day is 24 hours and is the period of time during which the Earth completes one rotation with respect to the Sun. We call it a solar day. One complete rotation around the equator gives big circle (longer circumference) and around the higher latitudes makes small circle (smaller circumference). So the time it takes to complete one complete circle around the equator is not equal to the time it takes in higher latitudes. Or are they equal?</p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-01-28T23:08:10.673Z
Their angular velocity is the same so it takes an equal amount of time for them to make a full circle.
milancurcic
CC BY-SA 4.0
2019-09-02T04:22:12.527Z
It might be better to use an example that isn't 90deg North : The concept of a day at a pole is going to be a bit more complex than elsewhere, so that might cause confusion.
Semidiurnal Simon
<geophysics><planetary-science>
Is there a time difference between two points at the same longitude but at different latitudes?
Gemechu Fanta Garuma
# Is there a time difference between two points at the same longitude but at different latitudes?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2016-01-28)

Assume we have two cities A and B both at the same longitude (say $45^{0}$ E) but at different latitudes say $8^{0}$N and $90^{0}$ N. Can we get a time difference between these two cities. I raised this question because the shape of the Earth is oblate spheroid,i.e., bulges out at the equator and constricts at the poles. In 24 hours the Earth rotates once. But the circle at the equator traversed by the sun is not equal to the high latitudes because of the shape of the Earth. This difference in circle traversed by the sun makes a difference in time between the two latitudes. Am I wrong to put it that way?

To elaborate a little bit, one day is 24 hours and is the period of time during which the Earth completes one rotation with respect to the Sun. We call it a solar day. One complete rotation around the equator gives big circle (longer circumference) and around the higher latitudes makes small circle (smaller circumference). So the time it takes to complete one complete circle around the equator is not equal to the time it takes in higher latitudes. Or are they equal?

**Tags:** geophysics, planetary-science

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Their angular velocity is the same so it takes an equal amount of time for them to make a full circle.  
> **username_2**: It might be better to use an example that isn't 90deg North : The concept of a day at a pole is going to be a bit more complex than elsewhere, so that might cause confusion.  

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## 2 answers

### Answer by username_4 on 2016-01-29. Score: 7 | Accepted answer

Earth's rotation has a fixed angular speed, therefore time is the same across the entire surface.

Even though the tangential speed (speed of the point in the surface) is different in each place of the surface, what counts here is the angular speed (the speed of rotation). Different tangential speed compensate the distance to the rotation axis by:

(angular speed) = (tangential speed)/(distance to axis)


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### Answer by username_3 on 2019-09-01. Score: 2

Only if you factor in relativistic differences! Someone standing on the equator is traveling at about 464 m/s whereas someone standing at 41° Latitude is only traveling at about 350 m/s. Hence the person at the equator would appear to be 4.6E-06 seconds per year slower in time than the person at 41° Latitude.

> **Comments:**
> **username_2**: *grin* assuming you're referring to username_4's answer - no, it doesn't factor in relativistic differences :-) Welcome to Stackexchange. I've edited your answer to stand alone, rather than reading like a response to another answer. THat's because this isn't a discussion forum, and answers may appear in different orders in the future. If I've misunderstood your meaning, please let me know.  

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