<p>This is clearly related to <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton%27s_laws_of_motion#Newton&#39;s_second_law" rel="nofollow noreferrer">Newton's 2nd law</a>, but since you have asked about the phenomenon rather than the formulas, a <a href="https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/349423/168121">Physics SE user explained much better than I can possibly can</a>:</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>(..) the gravitational force is different on different masses. Half
  the mass only has half the weight, so it is also only pulled in half
  as much by gravity.</p>
  
  <p>What gravity does is to pull in every single "particle" equally. If
  there are double as many "particles", then the pull in each is still
  the same and each accelerates the same amount.</p>
</blockquote>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2020-02-13T19:19:45.393Z
2020-02-13T19:19:45.393Z
Alexei
<p>Why isn't the acceleration of an object in Earth's gravity related to the object's mass? </p>

<p>Please, try to explain this effect without physical formulas, but using only logical formulation.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2020-02-13T16:32:11.920Z
Comment but not an answer: Actually it is, but when one object is much larger than the other (like the Earth versus a book) then the effect is almost but not quite zero. Why? The *force* is certainly proportional to the object's mass, but the object's acceleration is also limited by the mass. Push a car and a bicycle with equal force and the bicycle will accelerate much faster.
uhoh
CC BY-SA 4.0
2020-02-13T18:53:29.023Z
This is more of a physics questions than an earth science one.
Fred
CC BY-SA 4.0
2020-02-14T12:52:20.410Z
It's impossible to explain without physical formulas. $a = F/m$, hence it is independent of mass.
AtmosphericPrisonEscape
<gravity>
Why isn't the acceleration of an object in Earth's gravity related to the object's mass?
Ahillesius
# Why isn't the acceleration of an object in Earth's gravity related to the object's mass?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2020-02-13)

Why isn't the acceleration of an object in Earth's gravity related to the object's mass?

Please, try to explain this effect without physical formulas, but using only logical formulation.

**Tags:** gravity

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Comment but not an answer: Actually it is, but when one object is much larger than the other (like the Earth versus a book) then the effect is almost but not quite zero. Why? The *force* is certainly proportional to the object's mass, but the object's acceleration is also limited by the mass. Push a car and a bicycle with equal force and the bicycle will accelerate much faster.  
> **username_2**: This is more of a physics questions than an earth science one.  
> **username_3**: It's impossible to explain without physical formulas. $a = F/m$, hence it is independent of mass.  

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## 1 answers

### Answer by username_4 on 2020-02-13. Score: 3

This is clearly related to [Newton's 2nd law](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton%27s_laws_of_motion#Newton's_second_law), but since you have asked about the phenomenon rather than the formulas, a [Physics SE user explained much better than I can possibly can](https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/349423/168121):

> (..) the gravitational force is different on different masses. Half
> the mass only has half the weight, so it is also only pulled in half
> as much by gravity.
>
> What gravity does is to pull in every single "particle" equally. If
> there are double as many "particles", then the pull in each is still
> the same and each accelerates the same amount.


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