each of 3 investments has a 20 % of becoming worthless within a year of purchase, independently of what happens to the other two investments. if simone invests an equal sum k in each of these 3 investments on january 1, the approximate chance that by the end of the year, she loses no more than 1 / 3 of her original investment is  Choose the correct option:  A) 90 %  B) 80 %  C) 70 %  D) 60 %  E) 40 %
<gadget id="calculator">20 * 2</gadget>
<output>40</output>

<gadget id="calculator">20 * 3</gadget>
<output>60</output>

<gadget id="calculator">40 + 60</gadget>
<output>100</output>

<gadget id="calculator">100 - 10</gadget>
<output>90</output>

<result>A</result>
each of 3 investments has a 20 % of becoming worthless within a year of purchase, independently of what happens to the other two investments. if simone invests an equal sum k in each of these 3 investments on january 1, the approximate chance that by the end of the year, she loses no more than 1 / 3 of her original investment is
subtract(add(multiply(20, const_2), multiply(20, 3)), const_10)
the problem asks for the approximate chance that no more than 1 / 3 of the original investment is lost . we can apply the “ 1 – x ” technique : what ’ s the chance that more than 1 / 3 of the original investment is lost ? there are two outcomes we have to separately measure : ( a ) all 3 investments become worthless . ( b ) 2 of the 3 investments become worthless , while 1 doesn ’ t . outcome ( a ) : the probability is ( 0.2 ) ( 0.2 ) ( 0.2 ) = 0.008 , or a little less than 1 % . outcome ( b ) : call the investments x , y , and z . the probability that x retains value , while y and z become worthless , is ( 0.8 ) ( 0.2 ) ( 0.2 ) = 0.032 . now , we have to do the same thing for the specific scenarios in which y retains value ( while x and z don ’ t ) and in which z retains value ( while x and y don ’ t ) . each of those scenarios results in the same math : 0.032 . thus , we can simply multiply 0.032 by 3 to get 0.096 , or a little less than 10 % . the sum of these two probabilities is 0.008 + 0.096 = 0.104 , or a little more than 10 % . finally , subtracting from 100 % and rounding , we find that the probability we were looking for is approximately 90 % . the correct answer is a . this problem illustrates the power of diversification in financial investments . all else being equal , it ’ s less risky to hold a third of your money in three uncorrelated ( independent ) but otherwise equivalent investments than to put all your eggs in one of the baskets . that said , be wary of historical correlations ! housing price changes in different us cities were not so correlated — and then they became highly correlated during the recent housing crisis ( they all fell together ) , fatally undermining spreadsheet models that assumed that these price changes were independent .