Is there a known pair of distinct bit strings (A,B) such that SHA-1(A) == SHA-1(B)?

If the answer is no, then how can SHA-1 be considered broken?

We call a primitive broken, if there is any attack faster than bruteforce/what we expect of an ideal primitive. Broken does not mean that there are practical attacks.

Even when there were no known collisions in SHA-1, we still called collision resistance of SHA-1 broken, because there is a theoretical attack that can find collisions using fewer than $2^{80}$ calls to SHA-1.

In particular an $n$ bit hash function should have at least the following properties:


$2^n$ pre-image resistance (both first and second pre-image)
The generic attack is simply trying inputs until one fits the hash
$2^{n/2}$ collision resistance
The generic attack is generating inputs, and comparing their hashes against each other. The birthday problem tells you once you have about $2^{n/2}$ different values, two of them will likely be the same. In case of SHA-1 this that finding a collision takes about $2^{80}$ operations.


A function getting broken often only means that we should start migrating to other, stronger functions, and not that there is practical danger yet. Attacks only get stronger, so it's a good idea to consider alternatives once the first cracks begin to appear.
