I get this question frequently enough in my statistics consulting work, that I thought I'd post it here. I have an answer, which is posted below, but I was keen to hear what others have to say.

Question: If you have two variables that are not normally distributed, should you use Spearman's rho for the correlation?

Pearson's correlation is a measure of the linear relationship between two continuous random variables. It does not assume normality although it does assume finite variances and finite covariance. When the variables are bivariate normal, Pearson's correlation provides a complete description of the association.

Spearman's correlation applies to ranks and so provides a measure of a monotonic relationship between two continuous random variables. It is also useful with ordinal data and is robust to outliers (unlike Pearson's correlation).

The distribution of either correlation coefficient will depend on the underlying distribution, although both are asymptotically normal because of the central limit theorem.
