My question is about the book of Deuteronomy. As I understand it, this is the final speech given by Moses to the Israelites before he dies and Joshua leads them into Canaan. Because it is a speech, I can understand why the book uses "I" rather than "Moses."
Given that logic, this particular verse (Deut 29:6) confuses me.
In Latin, the subject of a sentence ("I," "you," etc.) is normally not mentioned but is implied by the verb ending. The fact that ego ("I") is mentioned means that the speaker is placing really strong emphasis on himself.
"I AM" is a title given in Exodus.
Exd 3:14	And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
oh...I didn't even think of that.