First, just to get you started, any and all translations, are just that–translations. By virtue of the fact that they are translations and not the original Hebrew or Greek, there is no vested or inherent inspired status that should be given them. KJV only advocates, sadly invest “inspired status” to the KJV as if it was a divinely preserved translation that supersedes all others. This is illogical. Nothing can be farther from the truth, however! Secondly, the only inspired status is given only to the autographs–the original letters themselves as they were written by the authors. But, these have not survived. Therefore, every Christian through the ages have had copies of the original, hence, not the inspired letter. In addition, copies gave way to translations. Therefore, no translation has divine inspired status as they claim the KJV allegedly possesses. Even as early as the second century, translations of the original Hebrew and Greek have come off the pens of scribes and lay Christians. Nonetheless, copies and translations have dominated the transmission of the Word from an early time until today. This is of course part of God’s plan in preserving and disseminating His Word!
In summation, no translation is perfect. Some are better than others. And yet some are very poor, and should only be consulted on a limited basis. Because of the two reasons–translations are only translations and the autographs do not exist–it is illogical to invest a translation with any divine or authoritative status over and against another. God inspired his word in Hebrew and Greek not English, Spanish, French, or any other translation. Indeed, the KJV translators themselves used Greek and Hebrew manuscripts to ensure accuracy of God’s Word! It begs the question, what makes the KJV so special? Were the translators inspired in the same way the apostle Paul or Peter were? Which translation of the KJV is more inspired, the 1611 or the further revisions done between 1611 and today (1780? one)? Why would the 50 scholars who gave us the translation, go back to the Greek and Hebrew and consult them for accuracy if KJV is the divine authoritative one? Why did the translators use other English translations like the Bishop Bible, Mathew Bible, Geneva Bible, also to make their own? What kind of special status can the KJV really have if it is about 90% technically Tyndale’s? In fact, the KJV is virtually identical to Tyndale’s version and essentially you can say that the KJV is a revision of Tyndale’s.