I've heard critics say that Joseph Smith invented polygamy because he got caught with the family maid (i.e. Fanny Algar), but how could he have the foresight to condemn polygamy with the following loophole (way back in 1830)?
Wherefore, my brethren, hear me, and hearken to the word of the Lord: For there shall not any man among you have save it be one wife; and concubines he shall have none. … For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things. (Jacob 2:27,30.)
Could he have planed on committing adultery, anticipated getting caught, and provided himself with this excuse even when he was translating the Book of Mormon (or "writing" the Book of Mormon, if your a critic)?
I know Jacob Cochran and the Cochranites were practicing polygamy in another state, but could Joseph have known of this and contemplated having more than one wife as early as 1830?