Which of the following compounds would be the most reduced?
Which of the following compounds would you expect to elevated in a diabetic patient who has run out of their insulin?
The RBCs would lyse
The RBCs would shrink
The kidney would swell
The kidney would shrink
Both B and C
When given the rate of a reaction is incredibly high (fast), what can you assume about the ratio of products to reactants (equilibrium)?
The ratio will favor the reactants
The ratio will favor the products
The ratio will equal between the reactants and products
You are unable to assume the ratio
“Assume” makes an ASS out of U and ME
Overview of Metabolism
Which of the following enzymes is involved in the glycolytic production of substrate level ATP?
- Phosphoglycerate Phosphatase
- Phosphoglycerate Kinase
- 1-3,Bisphosphoglycerate Transferase
- 1-3,Bisphosphoglycerate Mutase
- Both A and B
Which of the following would most likely be used to feed directly into the TCA cycle?
Which of the following enzymes or structures participates in anabolic reactions?
Fatty acid synthesisAnswer E.
In order for a reduction reaction to occur, what else is absolutely necessary?
There must be a sufficient amount of NAD+ available
Additional bonds are made to Hydrogen
Bonds are lost to O, N, or S
An oxidation reaction must also occur
Oxygen must be availableAnswer D.
While visiting a very poor 3rd world country you suspect some of the children in the village are suffering from Kwashiorkor. Which of the following is correct when describing this condition?
They are receiving adequate calories but are deficient in protein
They are receiving adequate calories but are deficient in carbohydrates
They are receiving inadequate calories with respect to both protein and carbohydrates
They are receiving inadequate calories but not in respect to protein
They are receiving inadequate calories but not in respect to lipidsAnswer A.
Infants are generally able to stabilize their body temperatures which helps keep everything else in check, but when they crash, they crash fast. What property allows them to thermoregulate so efficiently?
UCP-1 in white fat
UCP-1 in brown fat
DNP in white fat
DNP in brown fat.
Both B and D
A patient comes to you asking about a new weight loss drug that utilizes dinitrophenol. She says that people can lose up to 25 pounds in a week. What should you tell this patient?
They shouldn’t take it because losing that much weight that quickly could send their body into shock
They should take it, but be aware that it would only help them to lose water weight and muscle tone
They shouldn’t take it because it would cause their body to shut down as it fights to make energy
They should take it because it would increase their core body temperature which stimulates weight loss.
They shouldn’t take it because it would increase their hydrogen concentration which would cause their blood to become more acidic sending them into ketoacidosis
A patient presents with IBS which causes malabsorption of vitamins. They feel tired easily and are unable to even just walk their dog without becoming lethargic. You decide to get a blood draw and urine test of this patient and discover that methylmalonic acid is within normal range but the FIGLU levels are elevated. Which vitamin deficiency are they showing?
Which amino acid is most likely to undergo glycosylation?
Reagan was recently bragging to you about her vegan lifestyle, as vegans often do. You let her know that this is not a sustainable lifestyle without supplementation because in 6 years she will be deficient in which of the following?
What levels would you check to see if you were right about Reagan’s deficiency?
When an intracellular protein is tagged for degradation, ubiquitin residues are added to which amino acid?
Adding ethanol to a protein would NOT effect which level of protein structure ?
All of the aboveAnswer A.
After learning about Enbrel/Etanercept you begin to wonder about how the medication is cleared from the body. Since it is an exogenous protein and has to be administered through IV you suspect that it is naturally degraded as other exogenous proteins are. What pathway would that be?
Conjugated and excreted in the urine
Conjugated and excreted with bile
Converted into glycogenAnswer A.
Which of the following amino acids would you expect to be the target of ubiquitination?
Hemoglobin & Myoglobin
The binding of carbon monoxide to hemoglobin tends to shift the conformational equilibrium towards the R state. Assume an individual is exposed to moderate amount of CO, such that one heme site from every hemoglobin molecule contains a bound CO molecule. Will Hb-CO containing one CO molecule bind O2 to the open heme sites tighter or weaker than normal deoxyhemoglobin?
After an individual is subject to an acute acid load, which buffer system is instrumental in dealing with the acute acid load?
Which of the following values is abnormal or out of range?
pH of 7.39
CO2 of 44
HCO3- of 36
O2 of 98
All of the above are in normal rangeAnswer C.
How does the majority of CO2 travel in the blood?
As bicarbonate ion
Bound to hemoglobin
Attached to serum proteins
Dissolved in the plasma
None of the aboveAnswer A.
Enzymes & Enzyme Kinetics
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using an enzyme?
Increased reaction rate
Increased product to substrate ratio
Able to perform at different pH ranges
Able to perform at different temperature ranges
Enzyme remains unchanged after each reactionAnswer B.
Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?
Nicotinamide Dinucleotide (NAD)
Which of the following statements is always true in regards to an allosteric regulator?
Always increase activity
Always bind in the active site
Always a non organic compound
Always bind in a place other than the active site
Always decrease activityAnswer D.
Which of the following classes of enzymes would be used in a reaction to turn Methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl CoA?
Where is Alzheimer’s believe to start?
Threonine is able to be converted to isoleucine when isoleucine is low. This process uses an enzyme known as threonine deaminase. Isoleucine can then bind to the threonine deaminase when isoleucine levels are higher. This is an example of:
An allosteric enhancer
An allosteric inhibitor
Feed forward allostery
Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme of the committed step in glycolysis. As a committed step, it is often regulated by allosteric regulators. Which of the following molecules functions as a negative feedback allosteric inhibitor of this step?
Which of the following enzyme biomarkers of a myocardial infarction (MI) is elevated intially then returns to baseline after a few days and is able to signal another MI event if a second should occur soon after?
Xenobiotics are defined as anything foreign taken into the body. This can include drugs, toxins, chemicals, etc. When a xenobiotic is taken in per os (PO) it can be absorbed and taken to the Liver where it can undergo Phase 1 detoxification by cytochrome P450. Which of the following reactions will occur in phase I but not in Phase II?
The graph above was obtained from an unknown enzyme (Line B) in comparison without the inhibitor (Line A). What kind of inhibitor is it?
Which of the following chemical reactions should be of primary concern when treating an overdose of Acetaminophen?
Fehling’s test is a reaction that detects reducing sugars. Why do we not do Fehling’s test to determine blood glucose levels?
Glucose is not a reducing sugar
Sucrose is the form were interested in
It doesn’t differentiate glucose from others
Only some glucose forms are reducing sugars
It only tells glucose that is stored
Patients with Type II diabetes are unable to regulate their blood sugar as effectively because they do not produce enough insulin, so glucose stays in circulation longer. Exercising can help them to increase their glucose absorption. This is because:
GLUT-4 transporters are expressed more increasing glucose absorption
GLUT-4 transporters are expressed less increasing glucose absorption
GLUT-2 transporters are expressed more increasing glucose absorption
GLUT-2 transporters are expressed less increasing glucose absorption
SGLT is blocked decreasing glucose reabsorption
Glucose can be stored but NOT released from which of the following tissues/organs?
A Patient presents to an Urgent Care with abdominal pain, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea after eating a “tub” of ice cream. Which of the following monosaccharide combinations was this patient unable to break apart?
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Lactose
Glucose and Fructose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and MaltoseAnswer D.
Which of the following is NOT one of the hallmarks of inflammation?
Swelling (Tumor)Answer A.
Allopurinol is an incredibly effective suicide inhibitor which is used in the treatment of gouty arthritis. Instead of uric acid patients taking allopurinol will now build up which two compounds that can be recycled?
Xanthine and Guanine
Hypoxanthine and Guanine
Hypoxanthine and Adenine
Adenine and Guanine
Hypoxanthine and XanthineAnswer E.
Which of the following enzymes is NOT inhibited by a purine nucleotide?
Glutamine Phosphoribosyl AmidotransferaseAnswer C.
Patients with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome often present with gouty arthritis, mental retardation, and compulsive behaviors toward self mutilation of their fingernails and lips. Which of the following enzymes is dysfunctional in this X-linked recessive disorder?
Orotate Phosphoribosyl Transferase
Lipids & Lipid Metabolism
Which of the following is considered a Major Component of Dietary Oils and Fats?
Free Fatty Acids
Esterification is a very important process for the transport of Low Density Lipoproteins. In regards to steroid transport, at what carbon would I expect Esterification to take place?
Which Phospholipase would cleave the head off of a membrane phospholipid but leave the phosphate group attached to the glycerol?
None of the aboveAnswer D.
Which of the following compounds is NOT made from cholesterol?
Primary Bile Acids
Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol)
Which of the following conditions could lead to Cholelithiasis?
Excessive bile salt synthesis
High fiber diets
Ingesting exogenous chenodeoxycholic acid
Deficiency in bile salt recycling
Excessive de novo cholesterol synthesisAnswer E.
Which of the following would I not expect to find as a product of either the Cyclooxygenase or Lipoxygenase Pathway?
All of the above would be products of these pathways
Which of the following would I potentially treat an asthmatic patient with?
5 LOR Inhibitor
None of the Above
Aspirin works by binding their acetyl group to a serine side chain of COX-I. This is:
A competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of thromboxane
An irreversible inhibition of COX-1 inflammatory responses
A competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of leukotrienes
An irreversible inhibition of COX-1 production of leukotrienes
A non-competitive inhibition of COX-1 production of inflammatory responses
Which of the following compounds/activities does NOT affect/influence Acetyl CoA Carboxylase?
Long-chain fatty acyl CoA
Caloric IntakeAnswer A.
Which of the following coenzymes is necessary for almost any anabolic reaction?
A young type 1 diabetic gets pulled over and arrested for a suspected DUI. The officer stated that the driver seemed fuzzy and unable to show normal comprehension. The officer also reported that in close proximity to the driver he smelled a fruity aroma which led him to believe the driver had been drinking. Upon further investigation and finding out the driver was a Type 1 diabetic, it was discovered the driver was not drunk but in ketoacidosis. Which ketone body produced the fruity aroma the officer was able to smell?
Celecoxib is a COX-II selective inhibitor. It is often given to patients with IBS or other GI issues. Why would it be beneficial to only inhibit COX-II but not COX-I?
COX-II protects the stomach lining
COX-II causes platelet aggregation and thrombus formation
Inhibition of COX-I can cause premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus
COX-I protects the stomach lining
COX-I causes platelet aggregation and thrombus formationAnswer D.
Biomembranes & Membrane Transport
Cystic Fibrosis is a disease in which chloride builds up in cells causing patients to have a thick buildup of mucus on the surface of their lungs. This causes compounding issues. CF patients have a mutation in their CFTR. This is usually involved in:
Passive diffusion out of the cell
Passive diffusion into the cell
Facilitated diffusion out of the cell
Facilitated diffusion into the cell
Endocytosis into the cell
Which of the following phospholipids is found in mitochondrial membranes but not in plasma membranes?
SGLT is a glucose transporter found in the small intestine and kidneys which takes glucose from a low concentration in the lumen and transports it to a high concentration. What type of transport would SGLT participate in?
Primary active transport
Secondary active transport
Which of the following types of enzyme linked receptors is likely to be permanently active in a rapidly dividing cancer?
Tyrosine kinase receptors
Serine-threonine kinase receptors
G Protein Coupled receptors
Nuclear Hormone ReceptorAnswer A.
Which of the following signal transduction proteins would I expect to find associated with a Tyrosine-Kinase Receptor?
C. One that has a Ras domain
D. One that has a SH2 domain
KCNQ2 is a gene that codes for the expression of a specific calcium channel that produced “M-currents” within our frontal cortex. However, in those diagnosed with the autosomal dominant disorder called “Benign Family Neonatal Convulsions-Type 1 (BFNC-1)”, this gene is mutated. What type of channelopathy could this be classified as?
Haemopoietic cytokines regulate haemopoietic cell function via specific cell surface receptors.
A particular gene that codes for the expression of these Cytokine receptors can be found on chromosome 5 (a locus that is currently thought to play a role in the development of Leukemia). Which of the following ligands could be directly associated with the receptor that regulates expression of these surface receptors?
Haemopoietic cytokines regulate haemopoietic cell function via specific cell surface receptors. A particular gene that codes for the expression of these Cytokine receptors can be found on chromosome 5 (a locus that is currently thought to play a role in the development of Leukemia). Which of the following ligands could be directly associated with the receptor that regulates expression of these surface receptors?
The medication Viagra (AKA the most profitable mistake in history) works by causing vasodilation in the arterial supply to the erectile tissues of the penis. What enzyme type does viagra inhibit?
Why do type 1 diabetics have to be especially careful when measuring their insulin injections when coupled with exercise?
Exercise will trigger its own release of insulin and the combined amount will lead to hypoglycemia
Exercise will counter the effects of the insulin and lead to hyperglycemia
Exercise will add additional GLUT4 receptors onto membranes and cause hypoglycemia
Exercise will lead to increased break down of fatty acids triggering ketoacidosis
Exercise and insulin together will lead to unhealthy weightloss for type 1 diabeticsAnswer D.
Which of the following mutation is most likely to lead to cancer development?
Constant trimerization and activation of TNF receptors in non immune cells
Constant dimerization in the lack of insulin in insulin receptors
Inability to dimerize or autophosphorylate tyrosine kinase receptors
Inability to translocate activate STAT dimers to the nuclease
Constant dimerization and autophosphorylation of tyrosine kinase receptorsAnswer E.
Monoclonal antibody developed therapies such as Herceptin (trastuzumab) work in which of the following ways?
Antibodies bind to the receptor making it inactive as well as recruiting immune cells
Antibodies bind to the growth factor and make in impossible to bind and dimerize the receptors
Antibodies will stimulate the B cells and mast cells to release additional cytokines causing the HER2 receptors to be nonfunctional
Antibodies will bind to the receptors and force them to dimerize and trigger their signaling cascade
Antibodies will translocate through the plasma and nuclear membranes and bind directly to the DNA, inhibiting transcriptionAnswer A.
Sarin gas is an example of which type of inhibitor?
When checking their blood glucose, a patient discovers that they are low. Which of the following will occur?
Increase glycogen synthesis
Increase fatty acid synthesis
Increase liver glycolysis
Increase triglyceride synthesis
When a woman is in labor giving birth, there is a cycle of events that occur. The baby’s body pushes against the uterine wall which leads to stretching of the uterus. This causes a release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland which will then induce uterine contractions. These contractions lead to increase stretch and thus increased oxytocin release. This mechanism of action is referred to as which of the following?
Return to normal range
Same and Steady
Maintenance of homeostasisAnswer B.
Which physiologist established the principle of “homeostasis”?
Theodor SchwannAnswer D.
A patient presents to your clinic and asks if you know of any medications that inhibit Neuropeptide Y. What is the result that this patient is seeking?
Tumor RegressionAnswer C.
Which of the following would occur with an increase in Na+ leak channels?
The cell would become more negative
The cell would reach threshold faster
The cell would have a greater action potential
The cell would have a longer hyperpolarization stage
The cell would have a longer depolarization stage
Given the above values, what is the equilibrium potential for phosphate?
During which phase is the cell most negative?
Which of the following would cause a human neuron cell to return to resting membrane potential?
Sodium rushing into the cell
Sodium rushing out of the cell
Potassium rushing into the cell
Potassium rushing out of the cell
None of the above
Which of the following combinations of membrane potential (Vm) and equilibrium potential (Eion) would produce the driving force that results in a net inward direction of ion flow from the extracellular environment into the cytosol for an anion?
Vm = -90, Eanion = 86.5
Vm = 60, Eanion = 75
Vm = -70, Eanion = -70
Vm = -15, Eanion = -20
Vm = -20, Eanion = 15
Which of the following is an anion with a greater extracellular concentration value than its intracellular concentration?
Phosphoric AcidAnswer C.
Which equation takes into account the relative permeabilities of the ions when calculating membrane potential?
Goldman Hodkin KatzAnswer E.
The absolute refractory period is due to which of the following?
Inactivation of voltage gated potassium channels
Inactivation of voltage gated sodium channels
Opening of voltage gated sodium channels
Closing of voltage gated sodium channels
Both B and CAnswer E.
The most important contributor to the resting membrane potential is
More K+ ion leak channels than that of Na+.
The sodium-potassium pump
The amount of Calcium on the extracellular side of the membrane
The large, negative proteins on the inside of the cell
Open Chloride channels
A potassium ion has an equilibrium potential that matches the membrane potential. What does this mean for the driving force of potassium?
The driving force will become smaller, but will not reach zero.
The driving force will become larger.
The driving force will be zero.
The driving force of potassium is impossible to calculate with this information.
The driving force will not change.
In reference to the diagram above, voltage gated potassium channels are open during which segment(s)?
All of the aboveAnswer E.
Which of the following is true about how strong stimuli change action potentials?
Strong stimuli decrease the frequency of action potentials
Strong stimuli increase the time between action potentials
Strong stimuli increase the amplitude of the action potentials
Strong stimuli override the absolute refractory period
Strong stimuli override the relative refractory periodAnswer E.
Which of the following would increase action potential conduction speed?
Increased oligodendrocyte connections
More abundant Nodes of Ranvier
Decreased axon diameter
Multiple Sclerosis advancementAnswer A.
Which of the following signals would most likely be transmitted the slowest?
Action potentials self-propagate in one direction, much like dominoes. This is due to:
The absolute refractory period of the gates behind
The relative refractory period of the gates behind
The amount of signals firing
The intensity of the action potential
The length of the axon
The conduction speed of an axon is increased by
A and B
A and C
Which of the following is the most abundant cell in the nervous system?
Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
Gamma aminobutyric acid
Fred is back to your office for a follow-up after starting an antidepressant last month. He admits that he is still feeling low and that he stopped taking the medication after a week because it wasn’t helping. You tell him that:
He should try a new medication that targets a different neurotransmitter
His dose needs to be adjusted
It takes time to induce changes at the place where neurotransmitters are released
It takes time for the body to realize there has been a change in the amount of neurotransmitters present
It was working but he doesn’t want to be happy
While doing research between year 1 and 2 like a good little OMS, you discover a particular disease associated preganglionic sympathetic neurons which are unable to release their neurotransmitter due to a defect in their voltage gated calcium channels. Which type of voltage gated calcium channels would these be?
T TypeAnswer C.
While doing research between year 1 and 2 like a good little OMS, you discover a particular disease associated preganglionic sympathetic neurons which are unable to release their neurotransmitter due to a defect in the alpha helix associated with calcium sensation which triggers exocytosis. Which alpha helix protein would this be?
All of the aboveAnswer D.
Your attending presents you with a case, the patient cannot fire action potentials down their neurons, and it is discovered that they are not releasing neurotransmitters from their synaptic vesicles. Luckily, you have the answer, and can tell your attending that
Chloride ion channels are not opening in the cell body of the neuron, so the action potential is not powerful enough to stimulate neurotransmitter release
Calcium is not binding synaptotagmin on the vesicle, so it does not migrate to the membrane to release neurotransmitters
Calcium ion channels are releasing too much calcium into the neuron, depolarizing it to such an extent that it terminates the action potential, so no neurotransmitter is released
Graded potentials are the summation of EPSPs and IPSPs, and too many Na+ channels are being opened which inhibit the release of neurotransmitters
V-SNARES and T-SNARES are reacting with one another so no neurotransmitters are being released
Maria comes to the ER with glutamate excitotoxicity, which means too much calcium is being released, damaging her cells and their organelles. What else is happening to Maria?
Sodium channels are opening so fast that too much Na+ is being released too
Alpha-Ketoglutarate is also making excess glutamate through anapleurotic reactions
Free radicals are being produced destabilizing the cell membranes
Too much GABA is also being released in the brain
Excess dopamine is being released causing risk for parkinson’s disease
Which type of summation must there be if there are both EPSPs and IPSPs being added together?
Can be either spatial or temporal
Has to be both spatial and temporal
Its actually subtraction not summationAnswer A.
Which of the following excitatory neurotransmitters is both ionotropic and metabotropic?
After studying Dr. Hensley’s lectures over and over again, over time you begin to recall the information with greater ease. What concept of neuronal plasticity that he taught you about applies to this?
Long-term Potentiation (LTP)
Long-term Depression (LTD)
Glutamate excitotoxicityAnswer C.
In order to fulfill your dream of saying “fuck it” quitting your future job and running away rich on a yacht, you decide to go into the pharmaceutical game and attempt to create a new Alzheimer’s disease first line therapy. What type of drug is this likely to be?
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Glutamate metabotropic inhibitors
Dopamine agonistAnswer D.
Which of the following Parkinson’s medication is designed to facilitate the replacement of Dopamine?
The most common excitatory neurotransmitter is
Glutamate excitotoxicity is a major concern for stroke victims and those suffering from chronic neuronal degradation. What does this process involve?
A. Selective channels malfunctioning
B. Toxic buildup of glutamate in brain cells
—> C. No selective channels such as NMDA allowing too much Calcium build up in the cell
D. Too much glutamate converting to glutamine in the astrocytes
E. The presynaptic cell can no longer convert glutamine into glutamate
Inhibitory synapses are a type of synaptic potential that makes a synaptic neuron less likely to generate an action potential. These synapses are mediated through
—> A. Ligand gated chloride channels that hyperpolarize the membrane
B. Ligand gated chloride channels that depolarize the membrane
C. Voltage gated calcium channels that hyperpolarize the membrane
D. Voltage gated calcium channels that depolarize the membrane
E. Voltage gated chloride channels that depolarize the membrane
John presents in the clinic with symptoms of post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), this is a change in which of the following
Excess GABA release
Long Term Depression
Excess Glutamate Release
Which of the following adrenergic receptor types would you attempt to stimulate in order to get an over decrease of the sympathetic nervous system response?
Metabolic Fuel Sources in the Fed & Fasting States
Barbara recently started the Adkins diet which means that she is limiting her carbohydrate intake and increasing her protein. Which of the following would you expect to see one hour after she ate dinner?
Big spike in glucagon
Big drop in glucagon
Big spike in insulin
Big drop in insulin
Big spike in glucose
Which of the following GLUT receptors will always be active regardless of a persons external carbohydrate consumption?
GLUT 5Answer A.
Similar to how red blood cells will only ever run on glucose regardless of fed or fasting states, which tissues will run on fatty acids regardless?
Which of the following compounds will never be used in gluconeogenesis to make glucose (barring 15 step exceptions)?
Amino AcidsAnswer D.
Which of the following compounds activates AMPK in order to inhibit fatty acid synthesis?
Low Energy LevelsAnswer E.
Which of the following drugs may be given to a type 2 diabetic (NIDDM) in order to increase endogenous insulin production and release?
Beta agonistsAnswer D.
If Endoplasmic Reticulum get damaged, and you cannot release Calcium in the cell, which of the following receptors are affected, and cannot perform their function?
Glycolysis and PDH
Which of the following steps of glycolysis is the most highly regulated?
Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to DHAP and glycine-3-phosphate
Interconversion of DHAP and glycine-3-phosphate
Conversion of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate and generation of ATP
Dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
Which of the following is going to create the least amount of ATP?
Red blood cells
Which of the following is NOT used as a cofactor of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
Which of the following correctly matches the coenzyme to the vitamin?
Thiamine pyrophosphate: octanoic acid
Which of the following enzymes is regulated in the liver only?
Pyruvate KinaseAnswer E.
Which amino acid can be directly converted from and back to pyruvate and is thus an allosteric regulator of pyruvate kinase?
Which of the following is able to convert the NADH produced in glycolysis into another high energy electron carrier without the loss of potential ATP?
Glycerol 3P Shuttle
The Citric Acid Cycle
Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate shuttleAnswer B.
Which of the following is not a vitamin cofactor for the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
TCA Cycle and Anaplerotic Reactions
Pyruvate carboxylase (PC) deficiency is a rare disorder that can cause developmental delay and failure to thrive starting in the neonatal or early infantile period. Which of the following amino acids would you expect to be low in a patient who has pyruvate carboxylase deficiency?
Oxaloacetate is a critical TCA intermediate necessary for the continuation of the Kreb’s cycle along with other vital metabolic processes like gluconeogenesis. If the Krebs cycle were to be low in Succinyl-CoA, which anapluerotic amino acid could feed into and supply this deficient TCA intermediate?
Anapleurotic reactions are vital in restoring and providing additional TCA intermediates in order to run the Kreb’s cycle when other key substrates are limiting. Which of the following major anapleurotic reactions is both ATP dependent and requires Vitamin B7?
Glutamate to 𝜶-ketoglutarate by glutamate dehydrogenase.
Aspartate to oxaloacetate by aspartate transaminase.
Pyruvate to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxykinase.
Methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA by methylmalonyl CoA mutase.
Pyruvate to oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase.
The oxidation of Succinate to Fumarate in step 6 of the TCA cycle is catalyzed by Complex-II of the ETC, Succinate dehydrogenase, which requires the reduction of its prosthetic group to carry out its enzymatic activity. Which of the following substrates strongly inhibits the conversion of Succinate to Fumarate?
Methyl Malonic Aciduria (MMA) is a genetic deficiency characterized by excessive methyl malonic acid which gets excreted in the urine while also inhibiting succinate dehydrogenase. Deficiency in which vitamin would mimic these conditions?
Which of the following below correctly matches the TCA cycle associated enzyme with its essential cofactor?
Pyruvate carboxylase; Niacin
Ɑ-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; Thiamine
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex; Riboflavin
Succinate Dehydrogenase; Biotin
Isocitrate Dehydrogenase; Lipoic Acid
Deficiency in which of the following vitamins would lead to nerve and brain damage?
You just received Sally’s blood work and realize she is B12 deficient, which of the following would you expect to be elevated
ETC, Oxygen Reduction, and Redox Biochemistry
Sheryl suffers from a Vitamin B12 deficiency. This results in low energy, nerve damage and anemia. Which of the following explains why Sheryl feels fatigued?
The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of methylfolate which acts on complex III of ETC
The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of fumarate which acts on complex II of ETC
The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of succinate which acts on complex II of ETC
The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of MPP+ which acts on complex I of ETC
The lack of vitamin B12 causes a buildup of homocysteine which forms glutathione causing a buildup of Reactive oxygen species
Which of the following ETC Complexes is matched correctly with its inhibitor?
Complex 1 – malonate
Complex 1 – barbiturates
Complex 2 – Cyanide
Complex 3 – carbon monoxide
Complex 4 – antimycin AAnswer B.
In hemochromatosis there is a metal build up of Iron which can generate excessive reactive oxygen species through which of the following mechanisms?
ETC Complex 1 &3
Fenton Chemistry/ReactionsAnswer E.
Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is an enzyme that converts Arginine and oxygen into citrulline, water and nitric oxide. Which of the following forms is found in neuronal cells?
After a lipid peroxide undergoes hock-cleavage and oxidation it will create 4-hydroxynonenal (HNE) which can crosslink proteins and lipids. However, if HNE combines with certain amino acids it will become a protein adduct (aldehyde form) which can mutate DNA. Which of the following amino acids can HNE react with to create the protein adduct?
Which of the following is most reactive oxygen radical?
Superoxide radical anion
Which of the following is an example of a direct radical scavenger?
Vitamin CAnswer D.
Which cellular reductant is responsible for maintaining the reducing environment of the cytosol?
All of the aboveAnswer D.
Which enzyme is responsible for converting hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?
Nitric Oxide Synthase
Glutathione ReductaseAnswer B.
Gluconeogenesis & Glycogen Metabolism
Which of the following best explains how β-oxidation of FAs during fasting results in a shift towards Gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes?
Acetyl CoA accumulation drives its reduction to Pyruvate by Pyruvate Carboxylase
Acetyl CoA accumulation activates PDH phosphatase
Acetyl CoA accumulation drives the oxidation of Pyruvate by PDHC
Acetyl CoA accumulation activates PDH kinase
Acetyl CoA accumulation inactivates Pyruvate Carboxylase
Which of the following would serve as the best Gluconeogenic precursor?
Which of the following statements accurately describes an event or events that occur in Glycogenolysis?
When Debranching Enzyme encounters a limit dextrin, all 4 glycosyl units from the limiting branch are first removed and then added to the linear chain via 𝞪(1-4) glycosidic bonds.
Glycogenolysis results in the direct release of both Glucose-1-phosphate and free Glucose from Glycogen.
Glycogen Phosphorylase possesses both 𝞪(1-4) and 𝞪(1-6) glucosidase activity.
Although lacking 𝞪(1-6) glucosidase activity, Debranching Enzyme can both break and reform 𝞪(1-4) glycosidic bonds in Glycogen.
A and D
Henry got lost while hiking in the woods three days ago. His glycogen stores were depleted after about one day. Which of the following organs is helping him to create glucose?
A and B
A and C
Which of the following states the correct role of Fructose-2,6-Bisphosphate?
Conversion of Fructose-6P to Fructose-1,6BP
Conversion of Fructose 1,6BP to Fructose 6P
Ensuring that glycolysis is unidirectional
Ensuring that gluconeogenesis is unidirectional
Ensuring that gluconeogenesis and glycolysis do not occur at the same time
Which of the following is not involved in the degradation of glycogen?
Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
Protein kinase A
Cell Death and Differentiation
Which of the following is the “master” switch which causes cells to stay in an undifferentiated state?
Organization of the Genome, Replication, Mutation, & Repair
Regulation of Gene Expression
Inheritance Patterns & Human Disease
Epigenetics and Genomic Imprinting
Skeletal Muscle Physiology
Smooth Muscle Physiology
Cardiac Muscle Physiology
Biochemical Composition of Skin
Amino Acid Metabolism
Synthesis & Catabolism of Porphyrins
General Blood Histology & Hematopoiesis
Anatomy of the Immune System
Cells of the Immune System