In order to approach the Shakespeare Authorship problem we are dependent on yet existing documents (contemporary literature, letters, handwritings, official or state documents in various European countries and libraries, travel documents etc). No doubt: a full knowledge and interpretation of the vast amount of contextual related contents of contemporary literature in England at Shakespere's days holds the key to resolving the authorship problem. (s.List 1 and List 2)
The Epigram 159 in John Davies' "The Scourge of Folly" (1610) is quoted extensively in almost all Shakespeare Biographies to prove his fame and publicity during his lifetime.- Strikingly, the subsquent epigrams 160 and 161 are never mentioned although tightly connected to each other.- (see Faksimile above!)
Why "No-body" was "Shake-speare's" ["our" English Terentius] most constant, although his most unknown friend? Why "No-Body" should be served with nothing ("noughts")? Why this procedure was best for him?
Isn't it more plausible and logic, that the poet himself was most unknown, anonymous, incognito living, a "No-Body"[Marlowe], who - for safety reasons and because of a given promise - had to publish under Pen-Names such as "Shake-speare", he borrowed from "Some-body" [Shakspere-Stratford], a neere-deere friend?
Who is John Davies? Why there are two John Davies?
Why in Epigram 161 he is speaking in the "first person" form? (my selfe,... I,... I will, my selfe, I but my selfe,... am I somebody) "..
(Isn't it not too much of a coincidence, that at the same time 2 different high profile poets with the same name John Davies (Sir J.D. and J.D.of Hereford) wrote at the same time as Shakespeare? (Continued at Blogs 298 , 299)