posted on Dec, 11 2002 @ 09:14 PM
Moses Parts the Red Sea
For nearly a century, there has been speculation that the Red Sea mentioned in Exodus is not the huge 100-mile-wide expanse as it is known today, but
the western "finger" of the Red Sea--which is now called the Gulf of Suez--that extends to the border areas of Egypt. This notion stems from the
fact that the original Hebrew phrase for Red Sea was "yam suph," which actually means "Reed Sea."
This phrase most aptly describes the lake region north of the Gulf of Suez, including the Bitter Lakes and Lake Timsah. According to the account in
Exodus of Moses's feat, enough water was present initially to block the fleeing Israelites, and then later to drown the pursuing Egyptians.
Assuming all of that is true, researchers believe that a logical location for the biblical Red Sea is modern-day Lake Sirbonis. According to a
Bulletin Of The American Meteorological Society account, computer calculations indicate that because of the peculiar geography of the northern end of
the Red Sea, a moderate wind blowing constantly for about 10 hours could have caused the sea to recede about a mile and the water level to drop 10
ft., leaving dry land for a period of time before crashing back when the winds died down.
Common Thomas right along the path where Moses would have traveled is this area where such an event is a part of Nature? And you say it BS to consider
it valid that this was actually the territory he crossed.
Moses was not a God he was a man troubled by many issues. Amongst them, was is all probability Egyptian politics (Have you ever heard of a Setian
One way of describing them (Setians) is what they were into, which was Human Sacrifices. Perhaps Moses was a man prepared to deal with the challenge,
all God had to do was steer the baby carriage which led him to become a member of Pharaohs immediate family (he could have done the rest by himself
and for a good reason).
The only difference between the Negative confession and the Ten Commandments, is the complete lack in regards, to addressing the issue of
PS: Bandit am very curious, why is it that in the Egyptian book of the Dead the term Rhasta
is only mentioned once (I mean no offence but was
wondering if you knew or if someone you know has an answer).