Math question, loosely related to python... The python "Think Like a Computer Scientist" pdf tutorial assumes you have a familiarity with logarithmic equations and whatever sin stands for (will look into that next). I never learned this stuff. I understand some of the basic mechanics here, like that a log is sort of a reverse exponent. I can do a simple equation like finding the log of 36 with a base of 6. But I don't get why the logarithm of 1 is always equal to 0
MIT 6.00 Intro Computer Science (OCW)
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga.
Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus.
Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
Heres an example problem
Evaluate log1 with a base of 8.
8 to what exponent produces 1? 0 with a base of 8 = 1.
log1 with a base of 8 = 0.
We can observe that, in any base, the logarithm of 1 is 0.
log1 with base of b = 0
why is the log of 1 with a base of 8 equal to 0 rather than 1/8 ??
How does that make sense?
(8 *1) /8 = 1/8 or 0.125 so 0.125 * 8 = 1
Didn't I just equate the logarithm of 1 with a base of 8??
Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.
Hi Evil - this is something I had real problems remembering, so I had to check for myself before the light came on again!
I think of logs exactly as the reverse of exponents - it's the only way it makes sense to me, and by doing an exponent first, you can make your own language for the logs
e.g. exp 8 (3) is just "8 raised to the power of 3" --- log 8 (3) to me can be rephrased as "8 to the power of what number will give you 3?"
When I think of it like that, then exp (0) in any base is a number to the power of zero, and that always gives you the answer of one. Doing this in reverse (i.e. log(1) ) should always result in zero. "(base) to the power of what number will give you 1?"
I really hope this isn't even more confusing!!
Kahn academy has a great video on log
Any number to the power of 0 is 1. That's what was throwing me off. It would seem that it doesn't make sense, that rather a number to the power of nothing would naturally be nothing, but that apparently isn't the case. Next I've got to find out why (but that's a problem for a math forum - as was this one, really)... Thank you both for your help!