My daughter's Western Civ Professor told her class that the origin of calling the human Adam's apple was from Adam choking on the apple he ate in the Garden of Eden?! Is that true?
All my life I have heard the same explanation for why the "Adam's apple" is called that. Supposedly the phrase originated in the Middle Ages. There is no scriptural basis for calling it that. Even if it were true, which it clearly is not, why would Adam's apple be more prominent? Why wouldn't the woman have the more prominent larynx, and therefore we would call it "Eve's apple"?
In fact, there is more evidence that the forbidden fruit was not an apple at all. The Jews have long said it was the fig, instead, because the clothes they sewed for themselves were made of fig leaves.
On the other hand, it was likely not a fruit we now know. There is no indication that God changed his command not to eat of that fruit just because they had already done so. The fruit of that tree is probably no longer available to us, and so is probably neither apple nor fig.