  Do the partial order and ortholattice operations of a quantum logic
correspond to the logical implication and connectives of classical logic?
Re-phrased, how far might a classical understanding of quantum mechanics be, in
principle, possible? A celebrated result by Kochen and Specker answers the
above question in the negative. However, this answer is just one among
different possible ones, not all negative. It is our aim to discuss the above
question in terms of mappings of quantum worlds into classical ones, more
specifically, in terms of embeddings of quantum logics into classical logics;
depending upon the type of restrictions imposed on embeddings the question may
get negative or positive answers.
