<p>In economics, we are taught that, or needs are infinite and resources are fixed. And each needs and resources have some associated value.. At global level, we know, there are some rich as well as some poor countries.. But, I want to know, is it possible that, poorer countries will become rich as well as rich countries also become richer.. ?  If yes, then how is it possible, since resources are fixed.. . </p>

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2019-10-13T07:29:29.093Z
as well as of [How do economies grow?](https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/6544/how-do-economies-grow)
Giskard
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2019-10-13T07:30:55.427Z
Also, I don't know who is teaching "resources are fixed" but it may be wise to ask them what exactly they mean by that. And I am guessing they use slightly different phrasing, perhaps scarce instead of fixed. (Unless they mean the entire physical universe.)
Giskard
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2019-10-13T08:08:59.547Z
What kind of "rich" are you talking about? There are notions of relative and absolute poverty.
fantastic peace and prosperity
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2019-10-13T08:14:18.827Z
Thank you all for your concern.. And 'rich' here I am assuming is GDP of Nation.. .
abhishek
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2019-10-13T08:15:34.377Z
And resources are fixed.. . Here I mean, that sum of all goods and services in a particular period in all country are fixed and not changing.
abhishek
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2019-10-13T10:53:55.717Z
Consider when you think places like the UK or USA first became "developed". After that, consider whether places like China and India now have similar or higher GDP per capita and whether they are likely to do so in the future.  Data associated with Angus Maddison and then the [Maddison project](https://www.rug.nl/ggdc/historicaldevelopment/maddison/) might help.
Henry
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2019-10-14T22:41:50.847Z
Fizz's question about your definition of what it means to be 'rich' is critical to being able to answer your question. For example, in the USA, people on welfare are poor, but compared to many countries they live in mansions. Are those people rich or poor? If that is your definition then, yes all countries can become rich. However, If you mean equal outcomes for all countries then the answer is almost certainly no. Look into the Pareto Principle to understand why.
Dunk
<international-economics><development-economics><development>
Is it possible that all countries become developed and rich?
abhishek
# Is it possible that all countries become developed and rich?

(Asked by: username_0 on 2019-10-13)

In economics, we are taught that, or needs are infinite and resources are fixed. And each needs and resources have some associated value.. At global level, we know, there are some rich as well as some poor countries.. But, I want to know, is it possible that, poorer countries will become rich as well as rich countries also become richer.. ? If yes, then how is it possible, since resources are fixed.. .

**Tags:** international-economics, development-economics, development

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: as well as of [How do economies grow?](https://economics.stackexchange.com/questions/6544/how-do-economies-grow)  
> **username_1**: Also, I don't know who is teaching "resources are fixed" but it may be wise to ask them what exactly they mean by that. And I am guessing they use slightly different phrasing, perhaps scarce instead of fixed. (Unless they mean the entire physical universe.)  
> **username_2**: What kind of "rich" are you talking about? There are notions of relative and absolute poverty.  
> **username_0**: Thank you all for your concern.. And 'rich' here I am assuming is GDP of Nation.. .  
> **username_0**: And resources are fixed.. . Here I mean, that sum of all goods and services in a particular period in all country are fixed and not changing.  
> **username_3**: Consider when you think places like the UK or USA first became "developed". After that, consider whether places like China and India now have similar or higher GDP per capita and whether they are likely to do so in the future.  Data associated with Angus Maddison and then the [Maddison project](https://www.rug.nl/ggdc/historicaldevelopment/maddison/) might help.  
> **username_4**: Fizz's question about your definition of what it means to be 'rich' is critical to being able to answer your question. For example, in the USA, people on welfare are poor, but compared to many countries they live in mansions. Are those people rich or poor? If that is your definition then, yes all countries can become rich. However, If you mean equal outcomes for all countries then the answer is almost certainly no. Look into the Pareto Principle to understand why.  

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## 0 answers

