<p>Can indifference curves be drawn when we know only preference relation that defined below?
<a href="https://i.sstatic.net/jfCNg.jpg" rel="nofollow noreferrer"><img src="https://i.sstatic.net/jfCNg.jpg" alt="enter image description here" /></a></p>
<p>To be precise about condition given: <span class="math-container">$[x_1 &gt; x_2] or [x_1 = y_1$</span> and <span class="math-container">$ x_2 ≥ y_2]$</span></p>
<p>I’ve tried to find an indifference curve for points ( like (1,1); (3,4) and etc. any random points), but I get that <span class="math-container">$x_1 = n = x_2$</span> , so indifference curve is a dot…</p>
<p>So I came to the conclusion that without utility function indifference curves cannot be defined and drawn. Am I right?</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-10-02T11:12:25.000Z
Indifference "curves" will be singleton sets or dots in the graph. This is because each point gives a different satisfaction level. However it is not correct to say that without utility function we cannot draw the indifference curves.
Amit
CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-10-02T12:23:00.220Z
@Amit thank you very much for clarification! Could also think about real life example of such preferences? Coffee with cookies (x1, x2) and tea with candies (y1, y2) came to my mind, where getting a drink is more preferable for consumer and as much he gets is better (with respect to both goods from all bundles), but I’m not sure if such example satisfies these preferences
Laney
<microeconomics><preferences>
Indifference curves drawing
Laney
# Indifference curves drawing

(Asked by: username_0 on 2022-10-02)

Can indifference curves be drawn when we know only preference relation that defined below?
[![enter image description here](https://i.sstatic.net/jfCNg.jpg)](https://i.sstatic.net/jfCNg.jpg)

To be precise about condition given: $[x\_1 > x\_2] or [x\_1 = y\_1$ and $ x\_2 ≥ y\_2]$

I’ve tried to find an indifference curve for points ( like (1,1); (3,4) and etc. any random points), but I get that $x\_1 = n = x\_2$ , so indifference curve is a dot…

So I came to the conclusion that without utility function indifference curves cannot be defined and drawn. Am I right?

**Tags:** microeconomics, preferences

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: Indifference "curves" will be singleton sets or dots in the graph. This is because each point gives a different satisfaction level. However it is not correct to say that without utility function we cannot draw the indifference curves.  
> **username_0**: @username_1 thank you very much for clarification! Could also think about real life example of such preferences? Coffee with cookies (x1, x2) and tea with candies (y1, y2) came to my mind, where getting a drink is more preferable for consumer and as much he gets is better (with respect to both goods from all bundles), but I’m not sure if such example satisfies these preferences  

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## 0 answers

