lmms-lab/MEDMCQA · Datasets at Hugging Face

id stringlengths 36 36	question stringlengths 7 582	opa stringlengths 1 129	opb stringlengths 1 147	opc stringlengths 1 275	opd stringlengths 1 128	cop int64 0 3	choice_type stringclasses 2 values	exp stringlengths 9 4.21k ⌀	subject_name stringclasses 21 values	topic_name stringclasses 4 values
608ee01c-9e31-4688-a5b3-eaab8ca54795	Incomplete casting is the result of:	More porous investment in the mould	Narrow sprue diameter	Hollow sprue pin	Large reservoir	1	single	null	Dental	null
94377365-084a-4a08-9081-c1f2aa7b1b84	Restriction endonuclease cuts at	AAGGAA	AAGAAG	AAGTTC	AAGCTT	3	single	Answer-D. AAGCTT* AAGCTT is the only palindrome among the choices. Because the sequence of only one DNA strand is given, one must determine the base sequence of the complementary strand. To be a palindrome, both strands must have the* The vast majority of restriction endonucleases recognize palindromes, andsame sequence when read in the 5'-3' direction. Thus, the complement of 5'-AAGCTT-3' is also 5'-AAGCTT-3'.	Biochemistry	null
3f5c46d5-abc8-4727-ae33-91977a457218	The flap technique for pocket elimination and to increase in width of attached gingiva is	Coronally repositioned flap	Apically repositioned flap	Lateral pedicel flap	Modified widman flap	1	multi	null	Dental	null
b93a261f-e949-43f7-baab-ff96eaf4d530	Hepatitis B occurs after an incubation period of:	1 week	3 weeks	3 months	6 months	2	single	null	Medicine	null
8e59864a-686e-4d9f-9adf-803f4edca225	A tooth can be made to appear shorter by	Positioning gingival height of contour gingivally	Positioning gingival height of contour incisally	Positioning mesial and distal line angles closer	Positioning developmental depressions further apart	1	multi	null	Dental	null
f816598f-ed46-457e-aefe-c2dab3c36251	True about placenta accreta is:	Seen in cesarean scar	Removal should be done under GA in piecemeal	Chorionic villi invade serosa	It is an etiological factor for amniotic fluid embolism	0	multi	null	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
977163b4-1714-48aa-b3cb-8e98a77d10d5	Standardized technique of cleaning and shaping was given by:	Schilder	Ingle	Weine	Grossman	1	single	null	Dental	null
77bc7a7f-2138-438d-a372-089c4f806090	In which of the following microvilli are not present?	Gallbladder	Duodenum	Collecting duct	Proximal convoluted tubule	2	multi	Ans: C. Collecting duct Microvilli - Finger-like cell surface extensions.Usually 0.1 mm in diameter & up to 2 mm long.Absorptive surfaces of epithelial enterocytes of small intestine - Arranged in regular parallel series & constitute striated border.In gallbladder epithelium & proximal kidney tubules - Are less regular constitute "brush border".	Anatomy	null
5101251c-4a2d-455e-81ec-547c58511440	In a patient with post-tuberculosis bronchiectasis, which of the following will you observe on auscultation?	Late inspiratory crackles	Bibasilar crepts	Both early and late inspiratory crackles	Tubular breath sounds	2	multi	Ans: C. Both early and late inspiratory crackles(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1661-1665, 18/e p2143)Post-tuberculous bronchiectasis affect one lung only & produce coarse crackles, which are usually biphasic.Bihasilar crepitations:Typical of fluid overload (due to pulmonary edema).Occur in both inspiration and expiration. Combination of coarse and fine crackles.Feature of bronchiectasis.Related to a combination of secretions and increased compliance of the walls in larger airways."Late inspiratory fine crackles - In COPD or pneumonia.Tubular breathing - In Lung consolidation.	Medicine	null
2e661cd8-117e-485a-b59a-2ba84b83aefa	Radiograph of a periodontal ligament of a tooth which has lost its antagonist shows:	Widening of the PDL space	Narrowing of PDL space	Increased density	Sclerotic change	1	single	null	Dental	null
45ca5332-990d-47c7-8542-670dfc53479e	The property of amalgam that makes it undesirable to bevel occlusal margins of an amalgam cavity preparation is its:	Flow	Ductility	Brittleness	Malleability	2	multi	null	Dental	null
d50419e1-2a30-4eee-bc64-d8ed11d958cb	4 year old boy presented with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done, showed values of 36 and 42. What is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis ?	72 hour fecal fat estimation	CT chest	Transepithelial nasal potential difference	DNA analysis of delta F 508 mutation	2	single	Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis 1. Sweat chloride testing The sweat test is the standard approach to diagnosis. The diagnosis is made by elevated sodium and chloride level in the sweat > 60 meq/1. Two test on different days are required for accurate diagnosis. A normal sweat chloride dose not exclude the diagnosis. Genotyping and other tests such as measurement of nasal membrane potential difference, pancreatic function should be done if there is high clinical suspicion of cystic fibrosis. 2. Nasal potential difference Measurement of nasal transepithelial potential difference in vivo can be useful adjunct in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Individuals with cystic fibrosis demonstrate a significantly more negative baseline nasal potential difference, with the topical application of amiloride there is loss of this potential difference. 3. Genetic analysis Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is caused due to defect in CFTR (Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) protein. Cystic fibrosis is associated with large number of mutations. More than 1500 CFTR polymorphisms are associated with cystic fibrosis syndrome. The most prevalent mutation of CFTR is the deletion of single phenylalanine residue at amino acid A508. This mutation is responsible for high incidence of cystic fibrosis in northern European populations. Approximately 50% of individuals with CF who are of northern European ancestry are homozygous for A508 and >70% carry at least one A508 gene. The remainder of patients has an extensive array of mutation, none of which has prevalance of more than several percent. Testing for cystic fibrosis mutation was not possible because of the large no. of mutations associated with the disease. Now days commercial laboratories test for 30-80 of the most common CFTR mutations. This testing identifies >90% individuals who carry 2CF mutations. No where it is mentioned in the texts that testing only for A508 is enough for diagnosis. Detection of atleast 2 CF mutations are necessary for making the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.	Pediatrics	null
28709e53-cbb8-48d9-aa3e-44aaa7037257	Moality associated with emergency abdominal aoic surgery is:	10%	20%	40%	>50%	2	single	Answer- c. 40%With careful preopetative csrdiac evaluation and postoperative care, the operative moality rate approximates 1-2%.After acute rupture, the moality rate of emergent operation is 45-50%. Endovascular repair with stent placement is an emerging approach but at the current time is associated with a moality rate of approximately 40%.	Surgery	null
ad724a47-320a-4b79-81d9-8bea8da0f4a5	Without supervision, allowed to give dentures	Denturist	Hygienist	School Dental nurse	Dental therapist	0	multi	null	Dental	null
3dd87433-e787-4141-8dfc-f9d4c97e7730	An apically repositioned flap	Does not preserve the attached gingiva	Does not increase the length of clinical crown	Is the procedure of choice for palatal pockets	Is a pocket elimination procedure	3	multi	null	Dental	null
b3f14ba9-4e1c-444a-a072-8066fbf2481b	Which of the following cells are most increased in number in the connective tissue wall of a periodontal pocket?	Plasma cells	Leukocytes	Lymphocytes	Erythrocytes	0	multi	null	Dental	null
8905d104-f4ce-405c-b67d-4ee5650bbfcd	Which of the following classification uses the "canine law" malocclusion in a sagittal direction	Bonnet's classification	Simon classification	Dewey classification	Lischer's classification	1	single	null	Dental	null
c9cba9dd-2aa1-4cb0-b01e-18bc141940c3	Stiffness is?	Resistance to elastic deformation	Degree of elastic deformation	Resistance to plastic deformation	Degree of plastic deformation	0	single	null	Dental	null
f1b944e7-35c7-4ae3-aea7-3cd1d32e5249	Which of the following type of collagen is present in healing and granulation tissue?	Type I	Type II	Type III	Type IV	2	single	COLLAGEN TYPE TYPE DISTRIBUTION I Skin Most abundant II Connective tissue cailage and vitreous humor III Aeries and CVS Healing and Granulation tissue IV Basement membrane Defect lead to Alpo syndrome Gene defect - COL4A3-COL4A6 AUTOSOMAL and X linked Hematuria + OCULER Problem + hearing loss VII Junction of dermal and epidermal Defect lead to Epidermolysis bullosa Gene defect - COL7A1	Biochemistry	AIIMS 2018
636a3c09-3bda-40dd-bf94-c497bd39d8f6	Which one of the following drugs are not used in hea failure?	Metoprolol	Nesiritide	Trimetazidine	Sacubitril	2	single	Ans. C.Trimetazidine* Trimetazidine is not used in hea failure.* Trimetazidine is a newer antianginal drug that is a pFOX inhibitor which paially inhibits the fatty acid oxidation pathway in the myocardium. This decreases the oxygen requirement of the hea.	Pharmacology	null
722775df-4795-47f4-86c9-435b5d489e8f	Which of the following hematological disease is associated with periodontal disease?	AIDS	Hypophosphatesia	Wegener's granulomatosis	Histocytosis	0	single	null	Dental	null
570239d9-50eb-43d4-9003-f8c2574aed5c	Which among the following laboratory investigation is best to reveal bleeding in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DtC.?	Increased PT	Increased aPTT	Decreased fibrinogen	Increased FDPs	3	single	Ans. D. Increased FDPsRef: Essentials of Haematology by Shirish Kawathalkar, 2"d ed., pg. 442-147Two types of DIC are acute (decompensated and chronic cornpensated).Acute DIC:Findings in acute DIC are low platelet, prolonged PT & APTT, low fibrinogen, and increased FDP and D-dimer.Chronic DlC:Findings are normal platelet count, normal PT & APTT.However, FDP and D-dimer are increased.So in acute DIC, all the four options are correct, while if we consider the question as chronic DIC, then best possible answer is increased FDP.	Pathology	null
7ee5bbf7-1b68-4ac0-943d-c4486ba7892f	All of the following conditions are true regarding false positive results on EPT testing except?	Immature apex	Improper Isolation	Partial Pulpal Necrosis	Anxiety	0	multi	null	Dental	null
b9bcd2d8-268e-44fa-b162-9473d60055d9	Creep rate decreases with:	Increase force of condensation	Decrease force of condensation	Under or overtrituration	Dealy in time between trituration and condensation	0	single	null	Dental	null
16376460-3aee-4d18-8e7e-73660436d0ec	How much Is the connective tissue width around an Implant	2-3 mm	3-3.65 mm	4-4.5 mm	4-5 mm	0	single	null	Dental	null
4f22926c-1054-4056-8530-dd84d32600f9	Monitoring and diagnosis after completion of H. pylori treatment is done through	Gastric acid test	urea breath test	bacterial culture of stool	sodium chloride test	1	single	null	Medicine	null
cbf6cefb-7428-4d61-9940-03967a1a56b8	ECG with "mean" axis of 90deg. In which lead there would be the maximum voltage of R wave?	III	I	aVF	aVL	2	single	Ans. C. aVF90deg cardiac axis corresponds straight to lead aVF and hence as such maximum 'It' wave amplitude would be seen in that lead only.	Medicine	null
43232539-be9b-4292-8d95-7f9c5d909153	In arthroscopy, for TMJ adhesion lysis, the laser used is:	Ho-Yag	Er-Yag	He-Ne	Argon	0	single	null	Surgery	null
d0c2e565-6176-49a0-b3c8-8f0ac586d82f	Which one of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis –	Optic nerve glioma	Meningioma	Acoustic schwannoma	Low grade astrocytoma	0	single	Neurofthromatosis type (Von-Reeltdinghewsen disease) NF-1 is diagnosed when any two of the following seven signs are present. 1. Six or more cafe-au-gait macules > 5 mm in prepupertal individuals > 15 mm in postpubertal individuals Cafe-au-lait spots are the hallmark of neurofibromatosis and are present in almost 100% of the patient. 2. Axillary or inguinal frecking 3. Two or more Lisch nodules. Lisch nodules are hamartomas located within the iris. 4. Two or more neurofibroma or one plexiform neurofibroma. Typically involve the skin, but may be situated along peripheral nerves and blood vessels. They are small, rubbery lesions with a slight purplish discoloration of the overlying skin. 5. A distinctive osseous lesion. Sphenoid dysplasia or cortical thinning of long bones. 6. Optic glioma 7. A first degree relative with NF-1 Other findings are : - Pseudoarthrosis of tibia. Scoliosis is the most common orthopaedic problem in NF-1, but is not specific enough to be included as a diagnostic criterian. Short stature Mental retardation, epilepsy Hypertension Aqueductal stenosis with hydrocephalus Meningiomas, ependynomas, Astrocytomas, pheochromocytomas. NF-1 is caused by mutation in NF-1 gene on chromosome 17 which encodes protein neurofibromin-1. Neurofibromatosis type -2 NF-2 may be diagnosed when one of the following two features are present. Bilateral ocoustic neuroma --> Most distinctive feature A parent, sibling or child with NF-2 and either unilateral eighth nerve masses or any two of the following Neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, Schwannoma or juvenile post subcapsular cataract. NF-2 is cause by mutation in NF-2 gene on chromosome 22 that encodes for protein neurofibromin 2, Schwannomin or merlin.	Pediatrics	null
d55629c9-7b28-4491-b0af-f7cbfd962a08	Etching depth after 30 sec for orthodontic bracket with orthophosphoric acid is:	10 μm — 20 μm	3 μm — 9 μm	50 μm — 110 μm	200 μm — 250 μm	0	single	null	Dental	null
16533187-64d0-47f9-be71-dba4d56615fe	A 1.5 kg child born at 32 weeks by LSCS presents with moderate respiratory difficulty (RR 70/ minutes). Which of the following is the appropriate management –	CPAP	Mechanical ventilation	Warm oxygen	Surfactant and ventilation	0	single	Specific treatment for HMD is intratracheal surfactant therapy. This therapy requires endotracheal intubation, which also may be necessary to achieve adequate ventilation and oxygenation. Less premature infants (those > 1 kg or > 28-30 weeks gestation) and those with lower 02 requirements (Fi02 < 40 - 50%) may respond well to supplemental 02 alone or to treatment with nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).	Pediatrics	null
666e12f6-d2f8-4ba5-97ff-1078dc287def	A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse?	Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis	Washing hands with soap and water is advised	Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of presentation	Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weeks	0	multi	Post exposure prophylaxisTreatment should be staed within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then three drug therapy is given for 28 days. The drugs include 2 NI PLUS a protease inhibitor (or alternative drug). Commonly used therapy include Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Atazanavir/r After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection. Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection For adults and adolescents Preferred 2 NI: Tenofovir (300 mg) + Emtricitabine (200 mg) daily Preferred PI: Lopinavir/r (400 + 100 mg) or Atazanavir/r (300 + 100 mg) daily Alternative 3rd drug: Darunavir/r (600 + 100 mg BD) or Raltegravir/r (400 mg BD) or Eirenz (600 mg daily) For children <= 10 years Preferred 2 NI: Zidovudine + Lamivudine Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Preferred PI: Lopinavir Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Duration of regimen: 4 weeks	Pharmacology	AIIMS 2019
0a3c5105-0818-4067-88e1-fb89e5d36957	Which type of prefabricated post preparation system in mandibular molar is preferred?	Tapered, screwed in	Parallel, screwed in	Tapered, passively cemented	Parallel, partially cemented	3	multi	null	Dental	null
7aa9be4f-bb90-4284-8816-b7360a1a444b	All of the following increases calcium absorption from the gut except	Phytates	Vitamin D	Alkaline pH in the gut	Protein in diet	2	multi	Ans: C. Alkaline pH in gut Factors increasing Calcium AbsorptionFactors decreasing Calcium AbsorptionVitamin DdegParathormonedegAcidic pHdegLactosedegAmino acidsdeg (protein rich diet)OxalatesdegPhytatesdegAlkaline pHdegHigh phosphatedegHigh Mg2+CaffeinesdegDietary fibersdeg	Physiology	null
5bcec4d3-777e-4593-b9a0-fa97999f8481	A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations but the proportion of false positive results in population A is lower than that in population B. what is the likely explanation?	The specificity of the test is lower in population A	The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A	The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A	The specificity of test is higher in population A	2	multi	null	Dental	null
7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4	If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:	40-50%	10-15%	15-30%	5%	2	single	Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
32cb89d3-375d-4ada-873b-4ae11edd21a1	Two palatal roots are found in what percentage of maxillary 1st molars	1-4%	2-10%	0-1 %	Two palatal roots are never found	0	single	null	Dental	null
6530c9cc-2e1e-4b4a-9f7f-de0431d05799	The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called:	Gap junctions	Tight junctions	Anchoring junctions	Focal junctions	0	multi	null	Physiology	null
90e1de32-990e-4ebe-8e95-4934cd98e601	A middle aged male patient presents with fever and diarrhea for 1 week and acute onset pain abdomen for 6 hours. An erect abdominal X-ray was taken as shown. What is the likely diagnosis?	Pseudomembranous colitis	Adenocarcinoma colon	Pneumatosis intestinalis	Toxic megacolon	3	single	Answer- D. Toxic megacolonToxic megacolon is a serious life-threatening condition that can occur in patients with ulcerative colitis, Crohn'scolitis, and infectious colitides such as pseudomembranous colitisThis decompensation results in a necrotic thin-walled bowel in which pneumatosisa can often be seen radiographically.Diagnosis:Plain abdominal radiographs are critical for diagnosing toxic megacolon and for following its course.Transverse colon is usually the most dilated >6 cm on supine films.Mutiple air-fluid levels in the colon are common; normal colonic haustlal pattern is either absent or severely disturbed.	Surgery	null
b6662113-6b69-40b4-934f-2f69c1c760d6	Difference between the skin and mucosa of cheek is:	Thin lamina and non keratinized mucosa of cheek	Keratinized mucosa of cheek	Rete pegs	Thick lamina propria on skin of cheek	0	single	null	Dental	null
e2ae0a47-f237-4f8f-9dff-5395798420e1	Scaphoid fracture at waist with retrograde blood supply. Which segment is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?	Proximal	Distal	Middle	Scaphoid tubercle	0	single	Answer- A. ProximalMost common site of scaphoid fracture is Waist.Fractures can occur essentially anywhere along the scaphoid, but distribution is not even:waist of scaphoid: 70-80%proximal pole: 20%distal pole (or so-called scaphoid tubercle): 10%	Surgery	null
ce4876e4-6a17-465e-a1c4-6353dad02e85	A 12 years old boy came with complaints of 4 hypopigmented patches on back and on left arm. The patches had loss of sensation. Which of the following is the treatment for this case?	Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily	Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) only	Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days	Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) + Clofazimine (300 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily	2	single	Answer- C. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate daysThe clinical history fits the patient into multibacillary leprosy and requires extensive multidrug therapy for 12 months.Since the patient is aged 12 years, doses are Rifompicin (450 mg) * Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days.	Skin	null
a1a782cf-d0f2-4645-a96d-79ef0cef3516	Uses of atropine are A/E -	Organophoshorus poisoning	Mushroom poisoning	Arrhythmia	Miotic	3	single	Ans. is 'd' i.e., MioticCLINICAL USES OFATROPINE Remember - ATROPAA As mydriatic - cycloplegicT --> 'Traveller's diarrhoeaR --> Rapid (early) onset mushroom poisoning0 --> Organophosphate poisoningP --> Preanaesthetic medicationA Arrhythmias (brady-arrhythmias)Atropine is also used with neostigmine in mysthenia gravis to decrease anti,nuscarinic side effects of neostigmine --> As atropine blocks muscarinic receptors, use of atropine prevents muscarinic side effects of neostigmine, while neostigmine retains its benficial effects in mysthenics which are due to nicotinic receptors.	Pharmacology	null
46b87f53-f447-40b1-a0c0-85334ad9d9e7	What are the cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?	92, 182, 155	92, 180, 153	95, 180, 155	92, 180, 155	1	single	Ans: B. 92, 180, 153(Ref Williams 24/e p1137)Cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour & 2 hours after meals respectively.Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes by Oral Glucose Tolerance TestingTime 75-gm GlucoseFasting92 mg/dL5.1 mmol/L1-hour180 mg/dL10.0 mmol/L2-hours153 mg/dL8.5 mmol/L	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
2c00fc07-1a54-4b6f-b7a0-a3d2f3e4bf53	You have performed a pleural tap in a patient with suspected TB. You will send the sample for all of the following studies except:	Gene Xpe	ADA	LDH	Albumin	3	multi	Ans: D. Albumin(Ref: Harrison 19/c p1715-1716)The most impoant diagnostic tests in pleural fluid specimen in a patient with suspected TB are GeneXpe (PCR) and ADA levels.Total protein levels and LDH levels are required to differentiate between transudative and exudative effusion according to Light's Criteria.So doing a pleural fluid albumin level separately will not be very useful.Total protein estimation should be done instead.	Medicine	null
163bb472-c103-427d-af80-65e0d820cfb6	HOX gene is responsible for which malformation	Polysyndactyly	Holoprosencephaly	Mayer Rokitansky syndrome	Gorlin syndrome	0	single	null	Pathology	null
bc8e9ed4-81fd-4c8e-9381-ae6c4d193066	Possible conversion to choriocarcinoma after hydatidiform mole is denoted by all of the following, except:-	Rising hCG	More Theca lutein cysts	Increase uterus size	Sub urethral nodule	3	multi	Pre-disposing factors for development of choriocarcinoma after molar pregnancy - Rising hCG >100,000 Increased uterus size >6 cm Theca-lutein cysts * Sub urethral nodule indicates vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma ,it is not a predisposing factor. * Do not try to biopsy the sub urethral nodule it will result in torrential hemorrhage.	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	AIIMS 2018
2066f9f0-3eb8-4f40-8ca3-39406b885674	Lateral pharyngeal space is not connected directly by:	Buccal space	Sublingual space	Submandibular space	Retropharyngeal space	0	single	null	Surgery	null
82e2995c-8c88-47f9-b3d4-bcf04355a688	On abdominal ultrasound gallbladder shows diffuse wall thickening with hyperechoic nodules at neck and comet tail aifacts. The most likely diagnosis will be:	Adenomyomatosis	Adenocarcinoma of gallbladder	Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis	Cholesterol crystals	0	multi	Ans.A. AdenomyomatosisAdenomyomatosis is a benign condition characterized by hyperplastic changes of unknown etiology involving the GB wall.It causes overgrowth of the mucosa, thickening of muscular wall, and formation of intramural diveicula or sinus tracts termed as Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses.Investigations-USG- The presence of cholesterol crystals in these sinuses can result in "diamond ring sign", "V-shaped", or "comet-tail" aifacts on USG.Treatment- Cholecystectomy is indicated in symptomatic adenomyomatosis or when cholelithiasis is present.	Surgery	null
76422943-32a6-4fda-b0b2-7cac248bb79f	p' value is 0.00, then	Results are true of 99.9% of population	Test is not significant	1% of significance	There is no co-relation	0	multi	null	Dental	null
1f473717-d2b8-489e-969e-be0de6c30e86	The amino acid, which is used in the estimation of collagen is:	Hydroxyproline	Proline	Lysine	Glycine	0	single	null	Biochemistry	null
0113e4a7-b3a0-43f7-a30f-4e144fbac764	A child with Down's syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristics:	Maxillary prognathism	Mandibular retrognathia	Mandibular prognathism	Maxillary hypoplasia	3	multi	null	Pathology	null
95deaff5-dc0b-42a7-b257-573f3de4c88d	Best Age to sta bone mineral density test in female.	After 50 years	After 55 years	After 60 years	After 65 years	3	single	Ans.d.After 65 yearsNOF recommends:Bone density test :In woman age 65 or older.In man age 70 or older.	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
1450ca65-dcd0-49a1-bb7d-b633740c3436	Haddon matrix is related to:	Injury prevention	Communicable diseases	Maternal and child moality	Hypeensive disorders	1	single	Ans: B. Communicable diseasesHaddon matrix:Related to injury prevention.Most commonly used paradigm in injury prevention field.	Social & Preventive Medicine	null
afd502ff-b700-4ecf-acec-f849331dd1ed	Which of the following marked arrow represent lateral semicircular canal during coical mastoidectomy:	A	B	C	D	2	single	A - Incus, B - Facial nerve, C - lateral semicircular canal, D - Chorda tympani.	ENT	AIIMS 2017
a3912f88-1e01-46ed-9f13-544c1a36fbb5	Expected surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cysts is:	Incision and drainage	Sclerosing solution	Marsupialisation	Enucleation	3	single	null	Surgery	null
775ae087-72e3-45fb-9b1d-e4a74bddc1c1	A boy complains of bleeding gums, swollen, Joints with hemorrhage into joints. His paternal and maternal uncle complains of same problem. It is due to deficiency of factor:	VIII	IX	X	VI	0	single	null	Pathology	null
c7dddaf3-1c36-425d-8208-07125d469486	Deepest layer of deep cervical fascia is	Prevertebral	Carotid sheath	Pretracheal	Temporal	0	single	Deep cervical fascia, also known as fascia colli is condensed to form 6 layers. Investing layer. Pretracheal layer. Prevertebral layer. Carotid sheath. Buccopharyngeal fascia. Pharyngobasilar fascia. Prevertebral fascia: It is the deepest layer of deep cervical fascia. It lies in front of prevertebral muscles and forms the floor of posterior triangle of neck. It is separated from pharynx and buccopharyngeal fascia by retropharyngeal space.	Anatomy	null
3513f98e-19a9-4dfd-8f49-1e8514c3907c	In the formula for urea clearance, C = U x V/P, what does U stands for:	Urinary concentration in g/24 hour	Urinary concentration in mg/ml	Urine osmolarity	Urine volume per minute	1	single	Ans: B. Urinary concentration in mg/ml(Ref: Ganong 25/p p676. 21/c p678)In given formula for measuring GFR:C = Clearance of the substanceU = Urinary concentration of the substance in mg/mlP = Plasma concentration of the substance in mg/mlV = Volume of urine	Physiology	null
aa1d43f7-96e9-46b0-9795-a78bcc1f064e	Trisodium phosphate in alginate acts as:	Retarder	Reactor	Accelerator	Plasticizer	0	single	null	Dental	null
56afd089-38a1-40c8-ad6c-fe369383198b	For measuring hardness of Co-Cr alloy, which hardness test is used?	Vicat apparatus	Cold bend	Heat and cold bend	Rockwell hardness test	3	multi	The Vicat apparatus is commonly used to measure the initial setting time of gypsum products. A method for the measurement of ductility is known as the cold bend test. Rockwell Hardness Number (RHN) Like the Brinell hardness test, a steel ball or a conical diamond point is used. However, instead of measuring the diameter of the impression, the depth is measured directly by a dial gauge on the instrument. Application: The Rockwell test has a wider application for materials, since Brinell test is unsuitable for brittle materials as well as plastic materials. Ref- Mannapallil BASIC DENTAL MATERIALS P:24	Dental	null
8e7413da-351b-468d-8168-961cd50bda0a	A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Gross & microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis?	NHL	Castleman disease	Angiolymphoid hyperplasia	Ig G4 disease	1	single	Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant	Pathology	AIIMS 2018
87a02021-923f-4cd0-b93d-bfb486c0aa29	One day after complete mouth extraction, blue black spots are seen on the neck of the patients. These spots indicate:	Thrombocytopenic purpura	Postoperative ecchymosis	Impaired blood circulation	Cellulitis	1	single	null	Surgery	null
d95b767a-8152-4636-8d0a-0da18b352aa1	painful crater like 1.5 cm ulcer develops within one week on the hard palate mucosa of a 40 year old female. The most likely diagnosis is:	Actinomycosis	Squamous cell carcinoma	Pleomorphic adenoma	Necrotizing sialometaplasia	3	single	null	Pathology	null
cc1da36a-147f-4b74-9015-b7640ebb7ead	Most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly age group ?	Hypeension	Vascular malformation	Coagulopathy	Amyloid angiopathy	3	single	Though hypeension is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage, the usual site for it is putamen, thalamus, pons and cerebellum. But lobar hemorrhage in elderly is most commonly due to cerebral amyloid angiopathy, where there is amyloid deposition in the walls of cerebral aeries following aeriolar degeneration.	Medicine	AIIMS 2017
035a6e66-f990-4d45-abd9-9855059b027a	Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis:	Staphylococcus albus.	Streptococcus faecalis.	Salmonella typhi.	Pseudomonas aeruginosa.	2	single	null	Medicine	null
b69ced59-82cc-43b7-b3b8-829f8ee8930b	Platelet derived growth factor is released in vessels from:	Endothelial cells	Fibroblasts	Macrophages	Alpha granules	3	single	Platelet activation: The adherent platelets get activated, undergo a shape change and degranulate. The granules in the platelets can be Alpha granules having P-selectin, fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V and VIII, platelet factor 4, platelet-derived growth factor, and transforming growth factor-β. Delta granules or delta bodies having ADP, ATP, ionized calcium, histamine, serotonin, and epinephrine.	Pathology	null
7f982d0f-5ee4-4069-b03b-dab4d9130c37	Down syndrome is caused by all except:	Trisomy of 21 chromosome	Mosaicism of 21 chromosome	Robertsonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18	Deletion of 21	3	multi	Three cytogenetic variants cause Down syndrome: Trisomy 21 Chromosomal translocation Mosaicism Trisomy 21 accounts for nearly 95% of all patients with Down syndrome. It is now generally accepted that there are at least three forms of Down syndrome: One in which there is the typical trisomy 21 with 47 chromosomes (accounting for about 95% of cases) Another termed the translocation type, in which there appear to be only 46 chromosomes, although the extra chromosome material of number 21 is translocated to another chromosome of G or D group, either 21/22 translocation or 21/21 translocation (about 3% of cases) Another that is the result of chromosomal mosaicism (about 2%) Rajendran R. Shafer's textbook of oral pathology. Edition 7. Page 729	Pathology	null
53925f03-9145-4ca4-97ea-2e9f154fd36c	Which of the following is the most common organism found in retreatment cases of periapical abscess?	E. faecalis	Trepenoma denticola	S. mutans	Actinomyces	0	single	PERSISTENT APICAL PERIODONTITIS It is post-treatment apical periodontitis in an endodontically treated tooth (re-treatment case). Enterococcus faecalis is found the most consistently reported organism in persistent apical periodontitis.	Dental	null
be3afdad-0f5b-4443-8293-746222d73844	Maximum chances of fracture are present when which of these forces are present on a bone:	Tension	Torsion	Compression	Either of the three	0	single	null	Surgery	null
9baccdab-543d-4508-8192-493ac564b258	Phrenic nerve chiefly supplies?	Stomach	Diaphragm	Oesophagus	Ileum	1	single	null	Anatomy	null
aac3f7a9-9821-4f19-a131-0f6661d13562	Regional Odontodysplasia is most common in	Mandibular premolar	Mandibular canine	Mandibular third molar	Maxillary central incisor	3	single	null	Pathology	null
7bb79319-a8ea-4023-89bb-2423f53fc121	During surgical excision of the parotid gland the following structures may be damaged:	Lesser occipital nerve, hypoglossal nerve, chorda tympani	Facial nerve and auriculotemporal nerve	Submandibular duct	Cervical fascia	1	single	null	Surgery	null
dda876e4-c6ba-4136-bf0c-cc5dac90a7a4	A dye injected in to space to see the joint is known as:	Arthrography	Arthroscopy	Arthroplasty	Orthopantogram	0	single	null	Surgery	null
a86db080-2d2a-4eb2-abb0-11de110167f8	An elderly male presents with T3NO laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the management?	Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy	Concurrent chemoradiotherapy	Radical radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy	Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy	1	single	Ans. b. Concurrent chemoradiotherapyAn elderly male presents with T3N0 laryngeal carcinoma. Treatment is concunent chemoradiotherapy.'Advanced laryngeal cancers are ofien treated by combining radiation with concurrent chemotherapy for larynxpresemation and total laryngectomy for bulky T4 disease or salvage.''Concurrent radiation therapy plus Cisplatin resulted in a statistically higher percentage ofpatients with an intact larynxat I0 years.'	ENT	null
0bf8959c-a410-42df-bde1-678d021599d9	Which is the only anterior teeth with Mesiodistal size more than Cervicoincisal dimension	Deciduous lower central incisor	Permanent lower central incisor	Deciduous upper lateral incisor	Permanent upper lateral incisor	2	single	null	Dental	null
2fad53ed-ad7b-4194-8316-7fd39b1089a4	Which of the following abnormalities is commonly seen in a fetus with congenital CMV infection:	Colitis	Myocarditis	Blood dyscrasias	Pulmonary cyst	2	single	Manifestation of congenital CMV infection: Still birth Microcephaly Choroidoretinitis Deafness Hemolytic anemia (Blood dyscrasias simply stands for any hematological disorder) Pneumonitis Thrombocytopenia with petechiae and purpura IUGR Hepatosplenomegaly Icterus Mental retardation Have intracranial calcifications	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
b55d9ee8-ae0e-4a10-a2a5-f8553f94abec	White radiating Lines can be observed in case of Lesions of	Lichen planus	Erythema multiforme	Pemphigus	Leukoplakia	0	single	null	Pathology	null
b0551251-13ff-4dba-b185-e8b5c850d656	Which among the following is not true about ankylosing spondylitis?	Enthesis is the primary site of pathology	More common in Females	TNF plays an impoant role in the pathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis	Sacroiliitis is the earliest manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis	1	multi	Ans.B. More common in FemalesAnkylosing spondylitis is more common in males.(M:F is between 2:1 to 3:1).There is preferential involvement of entheses ( Site of attachment of ligament or tendon to the bone).TNF a plays a major role in immunopathogenesis.Sacroiliitis is often the first manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis. Synovitis, pannus, subchondral granulation tissue and marrow edema, enthesitis and chondroid differentiation are also found.	Surgery	null
1b7a2a1c-6321-4541-b649-7db8418c38da	Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa	Cefoperazone	Cefaclor	Ceftriaxone	Cefotaxime	0	single	null	Pharmacology	null
53b25799-4578-4b4b-aa22-5c9aa6b4f62c	The least effect on the prognosis of a periodontal disease is	Suppuration from the pocket	Furcation involvement	Alveolar bone loss	Co-operation and motivation of the patient	0	single	null	Dental	null
b057a579-865e-4b5d-bd32-c859e19078c6	Occulomotor nerve passes through	Foramen rotundum	Superior orbital fissure	Inferior orbital fissure	Foramen ovale	1	single	null	Anatomy	null
8695d0f1-5264-4bb9-acd8-9d9b634f2b4c	A child presents to the emergency with a history of ingestion of button battery, on X-ray it was found in the stomach or duodenum. What is the next step?	Endoscopic removal of battery	Wait and watch	Repeat X-ray after 5 days	Immediate laparotomy	1	multi	Ans: B. Wait and watchRef: NBIH Button bsttery ingestion triage and treatment guideline.The management of a Button battery ingestion depends upon the anatomical site of the impacted battery.Button batteries that have cleared the stomach usually pass through the gastrointestinal tract within one week without complications.Follow-up radiographs should be performed in asymptomatic patients who have not passed the battery by 10 to l4 days, regardless ofsize or earlier if patient becomes symptomatic.	Pediatrics	null
08773184-d813-48bd-b8ac-fdcaab87d67c	A child with tetralogy of fallot uses which of the following positions –	Supine	Prone	Squatting	Leaning forwards	2	multi	The patients of TOF assume a sitting posture (squatting) as soon as they get dyspneic. TOF is the commonest congenital lesion in which squatting is noted.	Pediatrics	null
13843218-9b0f-452b-868b-b8d3b317730a	True about Arrangement of hydroxyapatite crystals in Enamel rods?	In center orientation of hydroxyapatite crystal is 0 degree	Orientation of hydroxyapatite crystals at periphery is 45 degree	Both	None	2	multi	null	Dental	null
7a660bba-aabd-448d-9d13-38ee7837c97f	Predisposing clinical condition for endodontic flare up?	Acute periapical abscess	Acute apical periodontitis	Asymptomatic necrotic pulp with periapical lesion	Pain and swelling since the treatment	2	single	null	Dental	null
d0b07125-fc73-4874-9663-29e54ed5413a	Regarding ASO titre all are seen except –	ASO can be increased in school children	May be negative in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis	ASO titre included in major criteria in jones criteria	May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis	2	multi	Evidence of antecedent group 'A' streptococcal infection Positive throat cultures or rapid streptococcal antigen tests for group A streptococcoci are less reliable for antecedent infection capable of producing rheumatic fever because they do not distinguish between recent infection and chronic pharyngeal carriage (as many people are carrier of this bacteria). Antibody tests are the most reliable laboratory evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection capable of producing g acute rheumatic fever. The onset of clinical manifestations of acute rheumatic fever coincides with the peak of the streptococcal antibody response. The antibodies used commonly for serological tests are antistreptolysin 0 (ASO), antideoxyribonuclease (Anti-DNAse) and antihyaluronidase. ASO titre is well standardized and therefore is most widely used test. It has following features. Elevated in 80% of patients with acute rheumatic fever (So, 20% patients do not show elevated titre) Sensitivity is 80%. It is elevated in 20% of normal individuals perticularly in healthy school children of elementary school age (20% false positive). ASO titers of at least 333 Todd units in children and 250 Todd units in adults are considered elevated. It is included in minor criteria of jones criteria (not in major criteria). Anti DNAse B titers of 240 Todd units or greater in children and 1200 Todd units or greater in adults are considered elevated. If three antibody tests (ASO, anti-DNAse and anti-hyaluronidase) are used simultaneously, a titer for at least one antibody test is elevated in 95% of cases —> Sensitivity of combined three antibody tests is 95%. The streptozyme test is a simple slide agglutination test for extra-cellular streptococcal antigen absorbed to red blood cells (passive hemagglutination) test. It is almost 100% sensitive but specificity is very low and it is less standardized and less reproducible than the other antibody tests. Therefore, it should not be used as a diagnostic test for evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection. About option 'b' ASO titre may not be elevated in PSGN if PSGN develops secondary to skin infection.	Pediatrics	null
1c25695e-3dfc-4f00-815a-7c6dfa0478fc	28 yr with infeility lapro tube uterus healthy ovary diagnosis -	PCOS	Ovarian cyst	Fibroid	Endometriosis	3	single	Ans.D. EndometriosisIn endometriosis, cause of infeility isImmobility of tubesAnovulationTubal blockMale factor: 30%Tubal, uterine & peritoneal factor: 25%Ovarian factor: 25%Cervical factor: 10%Unexplained factor: 10%	Gynaecology & Obstetrics	null
a43a0fc3-9d61-45a2-8ebd-f90bb31af019	Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid aery in Kiesselbach's plexus?	Anterior Ethmoidal aery	Sphenopalatine aery	Greater palatine aery	Septal branch of superior labial aery	0	single	NASAL SEPTUM Internal Carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal aery 2. Posterior ethmoidal aery External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Sphenopalatine aery (branch of maxillary aery) gives Nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. 2. Septal branch of greater palatine aery (branch of maxillary aery). 3. Septal branch of superior labial aery (branch of facial aery). LATERAL WALL Internal carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal 2. Posterior ethmoidal External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Posterior lateral nasal branches 2. Greater palatine aery 3. Nasal branch of anterior superior dental 4. Branches of facial aery To nasal vestibule From sphenopalatine aery From maxillary aery From infraorbital branch of maxillary aery	ENT	AIIMS 2017
dd05805a-f289-42bd-8377-e0e8fdfcff8b	Excess of plasma level of lignocaine can cause cardiovascular collapse due to:	Myocardial depression	Vagal stimulation	Syncope	CN5 excitability	0	single	null	Surgery	null
e750cd52-447e-4ae7-9948-156375e177bb	Best noninvasive investigation to check for bility of myocardium is:	FDG-18 PET CT	MIBG scintigraphy	Echocardiogram	Thallium scintigraphy	0	multi	Ans: A. FDG-18 PET CT(Ref Harrison 19/e p270 e4, 18/e p1846).Best noninvasive investigation for myocardium bility check = FDG-18 PET CTViable myocardium:Non-contracting ischemic myocardium at rest.Has full potential to recover its function (On self or on revascularization).PET:Gold standard for assessment of myocardium bility.Identifies ischemic or hibernating myocardium in 10-20% of fibrotic or infracted regions.Uses thallium & technetium labeling.Positron-emitting tracer F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) assesses myocardial glucose metabolism - Hence an indicator of myocardial bility.Evaluation methods of myocardial bility:Mainly in ischemic cardiomyopathy patients.Myocardial perfusion imaging (with SPECT or PET) combined with metabolic imaging (i.e., fluorodeoxyglucose I FDGJ PET).Excellent alternative:Thallium-201 SPECT imaging (hospitals lacking PET scanning).	Radiology	null
ebd1b3d6-5161-432c-86a2-532c2ce66765	Regarding Japanese encephalitis vaccine, what is not true?	Not given for infants less than 6 months	Two primary doses given to children in the one to three year age group	Booster doses are given after I year and repeated every 3 years	In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group.	3	multi	Ans: D. In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group.(Ref Park 24/e p303, p261; Indian Journal of Pediatrics,. Vol. 51, October 15, 2015 p785).Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine:In endemic areas, vaccine is given to cover children between 1-15 years (Not 1 to 9 yrs).2 primary doses 4 weeks apa, booster after 1 year and 3 years until the age of 10-15 years.Booster after 1 year and then repeated every 3 years.Minimum age: According to US-FDA-2 months.	Social & Preventive Medicine	null
08b59e2f-a96d-4e2a-b21b-b5292982e74a	Role of Negative reinforcement:	Makes negative to positive	Makes positive to negative	Makes negative to more negative	None of the above	2	multi	Negative reinforcer is withdrawal of thing which increases the frequency of positive behavior. It makes negative to positive. Negative reinforcement makes negative to more negative, means if the patient shows tamper tantrum, you send the patient back without treatment, this will be negative reinforcement for him to escape from situation.	Dental	null
1740412a-70a5-4b66-9bc0-dc70e03c4c27	All are features of reversible cell injury EXCEPT	ER swelling	Dens deposition of mitochondria	Bleb	Detachment of ribosome	1	multi	Answer- B. DENS DEPOSITION OF MITOCHONDRIAThe ultrastructural changes (seen on electron microscopy) are:-Plasma membrane alterations - Blebbing blunting loss of microvilli.Mitochondrial changes - Swelling, small amorphous densities.Dilatation of ER and detachment of ribosomeNuclear alterations	Pathology	null
348d0bf0-fdef-44b2-be0d-0681139cf03e	Which of the following is urethane dimethacrylate (UDMA) resin based endosealer?	Endorez	Real seal	Raeko sealer	Tubli seal	0	single	null	Dental	null
8518813c-bb02-4357-94ba-ef5201c7c983	A patient is diagnosed of oral cancer of stage T3N2M0	Surgery	Surgery + radiotherapy	Chemotherapy alone	Surgery + chemotherapy	1	single	null	Pathology	null
64400a13-aab9-46fd-8609-ac725bb8e72e	GFR is increased by all except?	Increased renal blood flow	Efferent aeriole constriction	Renal stone in ureter	Decreased oncotic pressure	2	multi	Increased blood flow to glomerular capillaries causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure causing increased GFR. The efferent aeriole constriction also causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure causing increased GFR. Plasma colloid oncotic pressure is the force that opposes the filtration; when it is decreased, GFR increased. In case of nephrolithiasis or renal stone, there will be decreased flow of tubular fluid which causes fluid accumulation in Bowman's capsule leading to increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule which opposes filtration causing decreased GFR Net filtration pressure = PG -PB - pG PG: glomerular hydrostatic pressure PB: hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule PG: Colloid osmotic pressure of glomerular capillary plasma proteins GFR = KFX net filtration pressure KF = capillary filtration coefficient	Physiology	AIIMS 2018
2df7addb-dc8a-4428-8f08-09327d0a7ccc	Muscle that attaches to zygomatic process of maxilla:	Masseter	Buccinator	Middle temporal	Medial pterygoid	0	single	null	Anatomy	null
bf5ce756-8fbf-432d-aaa2-e8b26afe711b	Patient complaint of loose immediate dentures today morning, and also told that this happened 2-3 days back also. What could be the possible reason	Patient forgot how to insert the denture	Continuous healing of defect	Due to shrinkage of resin	Due to reduction of diameter of defect	1	single	null	Dental	null
f90b63af-1880-4eee-9405-bb1ef156af1e	All of the following are true about the given instrument except	Can be done in prone or lateral position	To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders	Breath holding not necessary	Platelet count of 40000 is a contraindication	3	multi	Given instrument is Bone marrow biopsy needle Bone marrow biopsy can be done in prone or lateral position. Most common site is posterior iliac crest. In obese person, preferred site is anterior superior iliac spine In newly born, preferred site is superficial bone i.e. tibia. To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders. Breath holding is not necessary in bone marrow biopsy. During biopsy of other organs like liver , breath holding is necessary. During any bleeding disorder, RBC or WBC disorder or hypo activity of bone marrow, bone marrow biopsy is done . Even in severe thrombocytopenia , Bone marrow biopsy is done.	Pathology	AIIMS 2019

608ee01c-9e31-4688-a5b3-eaab8ca54795

Incomplete casting is the result of:

More porous investment in the mould

Narrow sprue diameter

Hollow sprue pin

Large reservoir

1

single

null

Dental

null

94377365-084a-4a08-9081-c1f2aa7b1b84

Restriction endonuclease cuts at

AAGGAA

AAGAAG

AAGTTC

AAGCTT

3

single

Answer-D. AAGCTT* AAGCTT is the only palindrome among the choices. Because the sequence of only one DNA strand is given, one must determine the base sequence of the complementary strand. To be a palindrome, both strands must have the* The vast majority of restriction endonucleases recognize palindromes, andsame sequence when read in the 5'-3' direction. Thus, the complement of 5'-AAGCTT-3' is also 5'-AAGCTT-3'.

Biochemistry

null

3f5c46d5-abc8-4727-ae33-91977a457218

The flap technique for pocket elimination and to increase in width of attached gingiva is

Coronally repositioned flap

Apically repositioned flap

Lateral pedicel flap

Modified widman flap

1

multi

null

Dental

null

b93a261f-e949-43f7-baab-ff96eaf4d530

Hepatitis B occurs after an incubation period of:

1 week

3 weeks

3 months

6 months

2

single

null

Medicine

null

8e59864a-686e-4d9f-9adf-803f4edca225

A tooth can be made to appear shorter by

Positioning gingival height of contour gingivally

Positioning gingival height of contour incisally

Positioning mesial and distal line angles closer

Positioning developmental depressions further apart

1

multi

null

Dental

null

f816598f-ed46-457e-aefe-c2dab3c36251

True about placenta accreta is:

Seen in cesarean scar

Removal should be done under GA in piecemeal

Chorionic villi invade serosa

It is an etiological factor for amniotic fluid embolism

0

multi

null

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

977163b4-1714-48aa-b3cb-8e98a77d10d5

Standardized technique of cleaning and shaping was given by:

Schilder

Ingle

Weine

Grossman

1

single

null

Dental

null

77bc7a7f-2138-438d-a372-089c4f806090

In which of the following microvilli are not present?

Gallbladder

Duodenum

Collecting duct

Proximal convoluted tubule

2

multi

Ans: C. Collecting duct Microvilli - Finger-like cell surface extensions.Usually 0.1 mm in diameter & up to 2 mm long.Absorptive surfaces of epithelial enterocytes of small intestine - Arranged in regular parallel series & constitute striated border.In gallbladder epithelium & proximal kidney tubules - Are less regular constitute "brush border".

Anatomy

null

5101251c-4a2d-455e-81ec-547c58511440

In a patient with post-tuberculosis bronchiectasis, which of the following will you observe on auscultation?

Late inspiratory crackles

Bibasilar crepts

Both early and late inspiratory crackles

Tubular breath sounds

2

multi

Ans: C. Both early and late inspiratory crackles(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1661-1665, 18/e p2143)Post-tuberculous bronchiectasis affect one lung only & produce coarse crackles, which are usually biphasic.Bihasilar crepitations:Typical of fluid overload (due to pulmonary edema).Occur in both inspiration and expiration. Combination of coarse and fine crackles.Feature of bronchiectasis.Related to a combination of secretions and increased compliance of the walls in larger airways."Late inspiratory fine crackles - In COPD or pneumonia.Tubular breathing - In Lung consolidation.

Medicine

null

2e661cd8-117e-485a-b59a-2ba84b83aefa

Radiograph of a periodontal ligament of a tooth which has lost its antagonist shows:

Widening of the PDL space

Narrowing of PDL space

Increased density

Sclerotic change

1

single

null

Dental

null

45ca5332-990d-47c7-8542-670dfc53479e

The property of amalgam that makes it undesirable to bevel occlusal margins of an amalgam cavity preparation is its:

Flow

Ductility

Brittleness

Malleability

2

multi

null

Dental

null

d50419e1-2a30-4eee-bc64-d8ed11d958cb

4 year old boy presented with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done, showed values of 36 and 42. What is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis ?

72 hour fecal fat estimation

CT chest

Transepithelial nasal potential difference

DNA analysis of delta F 508 mutation

2

single

Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis 1. Sweat chloride testing The sweat test is the standard approach to diagnosis. The diagnosis is made by elevated sodium and chloride level in the sweat > 60 meq/1. Two test on different days are required for accurate diagnosis. A normal sweat chloride dose not exclude the diagnosis. Genotyping and other tests such as measurement of nasal membrane potential difference, pancreatic function should be done if there is high clinical suspicion of cystic fibrosis. 2. Nasal potential difference Measurement of nasal transepithelial potential difference in vivo can be useful adjunct in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Individuals with cystic fibrosis demonstrate a significantly more negative baseline nasal potential difference, with the topical application of amiloride there is loss of this potential difference. 3. Genetic analysis Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is caused due to defect in CFTR (Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) protein. Cystic fibrosis is associated with large number of mutations. More than 1500 CFTR polymorphisms are associated with cystic fibrosis syndrome. The most prevalent mutation of CFTR is the deletion of single phenylalanine residue at amino acid A508. This mutation is responsible for high incidence of cystic fibrosis in northern European populations. Approximately 50% of individuals with CF who are of northern European ancestry are homozygous for A508 and >70% carry at least one A508 gene. The remainder of patients has an extensive array of mutation, none of which has prevalance of more than several percent. Testing for cystic fibrosis mutation was not possible because of the large no. of mutations associated with the disease. Now days commercial laboratories test for 30-80 of the most common CFTR mutations. This testing identifies >90% individuals who carry 2CF mutations. No where it is mentioned in the texts that testing only for A508 is enough for diagnosis. Detection of atleast 2 CF mutations are necessary for making the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.

Pediatrics

null

28709e53-cbb8-48d9-aa3e-44aaa7037257

Moality associated with emergency abdominal aoic surgery is:

10%

20%

40%

>50%

2

single

Answer- c. 40%With careful preopetative csrdiac evaluation and postoperative care, the operative moality rate approximates 1-2%.After acute rupture, the moality rate of emergent operation is 45-50%. Endovascular repair with stent placement is an emerging approach but at the current time is associated with a moality rate of approximately 40%.

Surgery

null

ad724a47-320a-4b79-81d9-8bea8da0f4a5

Without supervision, allowed to give dentures

Denturist

Hygienist

School Dental nurse

Dental therapist

0

multi

null

Dental

null

3dd87433-e787-4141-8dfc-f9d4c97e7730

An apically repositioned flap

Does not preserve the attached gingiva

Does not increase the length of clinical crown

Is the procedure of choice for palatal pockets

Is a pocket elimination procedure

3

multi

null

Dental

null

b3f14ba9-4e1c-444a-a072-8066fbf2481b

Which of the following cells are most increased in number in the connective tissue wall of a periodontal pocket?

Plasma cells

Leukocytes

Lymphocytes

Erythrocytes

0

multi

null

Dental

null

8905d104-f4ce-405c-b67d-4ee5650bbfcd

Which of the following classification uses the "canine law" malocclusion in a sagittal direction

Bonnet's classification

Simon classification

Dewey classification

Lischer's classification

1

single

null

Dental

null

c9cba9dd-2aa1-4cb0-b01e-18bc141940c3

Stiffness is?

Resistance to elastic deformation

Degree of elastic deformation

Resistance to plastic deformation

Degree of plastic deformation

0

single

null

Dental

null

f1b944e7-35c7-4ae3-aea7-3cd1d32e5249

Which of the following type of collagen is present in healing and granulation tissue?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

2

single

COLLAGEN TYPE TYPE DISTRIBUTION I Skin Most abundant II Connective tissue cailage and vitreous humor III Aeries and CVS Healing and Granulation tissue IV Basement membrane Defect lead to Alpo syndrome Gene defect - COL4A3-COL4A6 AUTOSOMAL and X linked Hematuria + OCULER Problem + hearing loss VII Junction of dermal and epidermal Defect lead to Epidermolysis bullosa Gene defect - COL7A1

Biochemistry

AIIMS 2018

636a3c09-3bda-40dd-bf94-c497bd39d8f6

Which one of the following drugs are not used in hea failure?

Metoprolol

Nesiritide

Trimetazidine

Sacubitril

2

single

Ans. C.Trimetazidine* Trimetazidine is not used in hea failure.* Trimetazidine is a newer antianginal drug that is a pFOX inhibitor which paially inhibits the fatty acid oxidation pathway in the myocardium. This decreases the oxygen requirement of the hea.

Pharmacology

null

722775df-4795-47f4-86c9-435b5d489e8f

Which of the following hematological disease is associated with periodontal disease?

AIDS

Hypophosphatesia

Wegener's granulomatosis

Histocytosis

0

single

null

Dental

null

570239d9-50eb-43d4-9003-f8c2574aed5c

Which among the following laboratory investigation is best to reveal bleeding in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DtC.?

Increased PT

Increased aPTT

Decreased fibrinogen

Increased FDPs

3

single

Ans. D. Increased FDPsRef: Essentials of Haematology by Shirish Kawathalkar, 2"d ed., pg. 442-147Two types of DIC are acute (decompensated and chronic cornpensated).Acute DIC:Findings in acute DIC are low platelet, prolonged PT & APTT, low fibrinogen, and increased FDP and D-dimer.Chronic DlC:Findings are normal platelet count, normal PT & APTT.However, FDP and D-dimer are increased.So in acute DIC, all the four options are correct, while if we consider the question as chronic DIC, then best possible answer is increased FDP.

Pathology

null

7ee5bbf7-1b68-4ac0-943d-c4486ba7892f

All of the following conditions are true regarding false positive results on EPT testing except?

Immature apex

Improper Isolation

Partial Pulpal Necrosis

Anxiety

0

multi

null

Dental

null

b9bcd2d8-268e-44fa-b162-9473d60055d9

Creep rate decreases with:

Increase force of condensation

Decrease force of condensation

Under or overtrituration

Dealy in time between trituration and condensation

0

single

null

Dental

null

16376460-3aee-4d18-8e7e-73660436d0ec

How much Is the connective tissue width around an Implant

2-3 mm

3-3.65 mm

4-4.5 mm

4-5 mm

0

single

null

Dental

null

4f22926c-1054-4056-8530-dd84d32600f9

Monitoring and diagnosis after completion of H. pylori treatment is done through

Gastric acid test

urea breath test

bacterial culture of stool

sodium chloride test

1

single

null

Medicine

null

cbf6cefb-7428-4d61-9940-03967a1a56b8

ECG with "mean" axis of 90deg. In which lead there would be the maximum voltage of R wave?

III

I

aVF

aVL

2

single

Ans. C. aVF90deg cardiac axis corresponds straight to lead aVF and hence as such maximum 'It' wave amplitude would be seen in that lead only.

Medicine

null

43232539-be9b-4292-8d95-7f9c5d909153

In arthroscopy, for TMJ adhesion lysis, the laser used is:

Ho-Yag

Er-Yag

He-Ne

Argon

0

single

null

Surgery

null

d0c2e565-6176-49a0-b3c8-8f0ac586d82f

Which one of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis –

Optic nerve glioma

Meningioma

Acoustic schwannoma

Low grade astrocytoma

0

single

Neurofthromatosis type (Von-Reeltdinghewsen disease) NF-1 is diagnosed when any two of the following seven signs are present. 1. Six or more cafe-au-gait macules > 5 mm in prepupertal individuals > 15 mm in postpubertal individuals Cafe-au-lait spots are the hallmark of neurofibromatosis and are present in almost 100% of the patient. 2. Axillary or inguinal frecking 3. Two or more Lisch nodules. Lisch nodules are hamartomas located within the iris. 4. Two or more neurofibroma or one plexiform neurofibroma. Typically involve the skin, but may be situated along peripheral nerves and blood vessels. They are small, rubbery lesions with a slight purplish discoloration of the overlying skin. 5. A distinctive osseous lesion. Sphenoid dysplasia or cortical thinning of long bones. 6. Optic glioma 7. A first degree relative with NF-1 Other findings are : - Pseudoarthrosis of tibia. Scoliosis is the most common orthopaedic problem in NF-1, but is not specific enough to be included as a diagnostic criterian. Short stature Mental retardation, epilepsy Hypertension Aqueductal stenosis with hydrocephalus Meningiomas, ependynomas, Astrocytomas, pheochromocytomas. NF-1 is caused by mutation in NF-1 gene on chromosome 17 which encodes protein neurofibromin-1. Neurofibromatosis type -2 NF-2 may be diagnosed when one of the following two features are present. Bilateral ocoustic neuroma --> Most distinctive feature A parent, sibling or child with NF-2 and either unilateral eighth nerve masses or any two of the following Neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, Schwannoma or juvenile post subcapsular cataract. NF-2 is cause by mutation in NF-2 gene on chromosome 22 that encodes for protein neurofibromin 2, Schwannomin or merlin.

Pediatrics

null

d55629c9-7b28-4491-b0af-f7cbfd962a08

Etching depth after 30 sec for orthodontic bracket with orthophosphoric acid is:

10 μm — 20 μm

3 μm — 9 μm

50 μm — 110 μm

200 μm — 250 μm

0

single

null

Dental

null

16533187-64d0-47f9-be71-dba4d56615fe

A 1.5 kg child born at 32 weeks by LSCS presents with moderate respiratory difficulty (RR 70/ minutes). Which of the following is the appropriate management –

CPAP

Mechanical ventilation

Warm oxygen

Surfactant and ventilation

0

single

Specific treatment for HMD is intratracheal surfactant therapy. This therapy requires endotracheal intubation, which also may be necessary to achieve adequate ventilation and oxygenation. Less premature infants (those > 1 kg or > 28-30 weeks gestation) and those with lower 02 requirements (Fi02 < 40 - 50%) may respond well to supplemental 02 alone or to treatment with nasal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Pediatrics

null

666e12f6-d2f8-4ba5-97ff-1078dc287def

A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of this nurse?

Zidovudine is used as monotherapy for post-exposure prophylaxis

Washing hands with soap and water is advised

Baseline viral markers of health care personnel should be done at the time of presentation

Follow up viral markers of health care personnel should be measured at 6 weeks

0

multi

Post exposure prophylaxisTreatment should be staed within 72 hours of exposure, preferably as early as possible At first the wound is washed with soap and water. Secondly before initiating drug therapy blood samples are taken to measure the baseline viral markers Then three drug therapy is given for 28 days. The drugs include 2 NI PLUS a protease inhibitor (or alternative drug). Commonly used therapy include Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Atazanavir/r After 6 weeks again viral markers are measured to check for the infection. Post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection For adults and adolescents Preferred 2 NI: Tenofovir (300 mg) + Emtricitabine (200 mg) daily Preferred PI: Lopinavir/r (400 + 100 mg) or Atazanavir/r (300 + 100 mg) daily Alternative 3rd drug: Darunavir/r (600 + 100 mg BD) or Raltegravir/r (400 mg BD) or Eirenz (600 mg daily) For children <= 10 years Preferred 2 NI: Zidovudine + Lamivudine Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Preferred PI: Lopinavir Alternative 3rd drug: Atazanavir/r or Darunavir/r or Eirenz or Raltegravir Duration of regimen: 4 weeks

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2019

0a3c5105-0818-4067-88e1-fb89e5d36957

Which type of prefabricated post preparation system in mandibular molar is preferred?

Tapered, screwed in

Parallel, screwed in

Tapered, passively cemented

Parallel, partially cemented

3

multi

null

Dental

null

7aa9be4f-bb90-4284-8816-b7360a1a444b

All of the following increases calcium absorption from the gut except

Phytates

Vitamin D

Alkaline pH in the gut

Protein in diet

2

multi

Ans: C. Alkaline pH in gut Factors increasing Calcium AbsorptionFactors decreasing Calcium AbsorptionVitamin DdegParathormonedegAcidic pHdegLactosedegAmino acidsdeg (protein rich diet)OxalatesdegPhytatesdegAlkaline pHdegHigh phosphatedegHigh Mg2+CaffeinesdegDietary fibersdeg

Physiology

null

5bcec4d3-777e-4593-b9a0-fa97999f8481

A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations but the proportion of false positive results in population A is lower than that in population B. what is the likely explanation?

The specificity of the test is lower in population A

The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A

The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A

The specificity of test is higher in population A

2

multi

null

Dental

null

7f6a2842-7816-4a42-821c-d6e066a36fb4

If untreated, percentage of mother to child transmission of HIV during delivery without intervention in a non-breast fed child is:

40-50%

10-15%

15-30%

5%

2

single

Answer- C. 15-30%'In the absence of any intervention, an estimated 15-30% of mothers with HIY infection will transmit the infection duringprcgnsncy and delivery. and 10-20% will transmit the infection, through breast feeding. Veical transmission of IIIV-Loccurs mostly during the intrapaum period (50-70%).'- COGDT l0/e p692

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

32cb89d3-375d-4ada-873b-4ae11edd21a1

Two palatal roots are found in what percentage of maxillary 1st molars

1-4%

2-10%

0-1 %

Two palatal roots are never found

0

single

null

Dental

null

6530c9cc-2e1e-4b4a-9f7f-de0431d05799

The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called:

Gap junctions

Tight junctions

Anchoring junctions

Focal junctions

0

multi

null

Physiology

null

90e1de32-990e-4ebe-8e95-4934cd98e601

A middle aged male patient presents with fever and diarrhea for 1 week and acute onset pain abdomen for 6 hours. An erect abdominal X-ray was taken as shown. What is the likely diagnosis?

Pseudomembranous colitis

Adenocarcinoma colon

Pneumatosis intestinalis

Toxic megacolon

3

single

Answer- D. Toxic megacolonToxic megacolon is a serious life-threatening condition that can occur in patients with ulcerative colitis, Crohn'scolitis, and infectious colitides such as pseudomembranous colitisThis decompensation results in a necrotic thin-walled bowel in which pneumatosisa can often be seen radiographically.Diagnosis:Plain abdominal radiographs are critical for diagnosing toxic megacolon and for following its course.Transverse colon is usually the most dilated >6 cm on supine films.Mutiple air-fluid levels in the colon are common; normal colonic haustlal pattern is either absent or severely disturbed.

Surgery

null

b6662113-6b69-40b4-934f-2f69c1c760d6

Difference between the skin and mucosa of cheek is:

Thin lamina and non keratinized mucosa of cheek

Keratinized mucosa of cheek

Rete pegs

Thick lamina propria on skin of cheek

0

single

null

Dental

null

e2ae0a47-f237-4f8f-9dff-5395798420e1

Scaphoid fracture at waist with retrograde blood supply. Which segment is most susceptible to avascular necrosis?

Proximal

Distal

Middle

Scaphoid tubercle

0

single

Answer- A. ProximalMost common site of scaphoid fracture is Waist.Fractures can occur essentially anywhere along the scaphoid, but distribution is not even:waist of scaphoid: 70-80%proximal pole: 20%distal pole (or so-called scaphoid tubercle): 10%

Surgery

null

ce4876e4-6a17-465e-a1c4-6353dad02e85

A 12 years old boy came with complaints of 4 hypopigmented patches on back and on left arm. The patches had loss of sensation. Which of the following is the treatment for this case?

Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily

Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) only

Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days

Rifampicin (600 mg) + Dapsone (150 mg) + Clofazimine (300 mg) monthly and 50 mg daily

2

single

Answer- C. Rifampicin (450 mg) + Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate daysThe clinical history fits the patient into multibacillary leprosy and requires extensive multidrug therapy for 12 months.Since the patient is aged 12 years, doses are Rifompicin (450 mg) * Dapsone (50 mg) + Clofazimine (150 mg) monthly and 50 mg alternate days.

Skin

null

a1a782cf-d0f2-4645-a96d-79ef0cef3516

Uses of atropine are A/E -

Organophoshorus poisoning

Mushroom poisoning

Arrhythmia

Miotic

3

single

Ans. is 'd' i.e., MioticCLINICAL USES OFATROPINE Remember - ATROPAA As mydriatic - cycloplegicT --> 'Traveller's diarrhoeaR --> Rapid (early) onset mushroom poisoning0 --> Organophosphate poisoningP --> Preanaesthetic medicationA Arrhythmias (brady-arrhythmias)Atropine is also used with neostigmine in mysthenia gravis to decrease anti,nuscarinic side effects of neostigmine --> As atropine blocks muscarinic receptors, use of atropine prevents muscarinic side effects of neostigmine, while neostigmine retains its benficial effects in mysthenics which are due to nicotinic receptors.

Pharmacology

null

46b87f53-f447-40b1-a0c0-85334ad9d9e7

What are the cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?

92, 182, 155

92, 180, 153

95, 180, 155

92, 180, 155

1

single

Ans: B. 92, 180, 153(Ref Williams 24/e p1137)Cut-off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour & 2 hours after meals respectively.Diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes by Oral Glucose Tolerance TestingTime 75-gm GlucoseFasting92 mg/dL5.1 mmol/L1-hour180 mg/dL10.0 mmol/L2-hours153 mg/dL8.5 mmol/L

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

2c00fc07-1a54-4b6f-b7a0-a3d2f3e4bf53

You have performed a pleural tap in a patient with suspected TB. You will send the sample for all of the following studies except:

Gene Xpe

ADA

LDH

Albumin

3

multi

Ans: D. Albumin(Ref: Harrison 19/c p1715-1716)The most impoant diagnostic tests in pleural fluid specimen in a patient with suspected TB are GeneXpe (PCR) and ADA levels.Total protein levels and LDH levels are required to differentiate between transudative and exudative effusion according to Light's Criteria.So doing a pleural fluid albumin level separately will not be very useful.Total protein estimation should be done instead.

Medicine

null

163bb472-c103-427d-af80-65e0d820cfb6

HOX gene is responsible for which malformation

Polysyndactyly

Holoprosencephaly

Mayer Rokitansky syndrome

Gorlin syndrome

0

single

null

Pathology

null

bc8e9ed4-81fd-4c8e-9381-ae6c4d193066

Possible conversion to choriocarcinoma after hydatidiform mole is denoted by all of the following, except:-

Rising hCG

More Theca lutein cysts

Increase uterus size

Sub urethral nodule

3

multi

Pre-disposing factors for development of choriocarcinoma after molar pregnancy - Rising hCG >100,000 Increased uterus size >6 cm Theca-lutein cysts * Sub urethral nodule indicates vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma ,it is not a predisposing factor. * Do not try to biopsy the sub urethral nodule it will result in torrential hemorrhage.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2018

2066f9f0-3eb8-4f40-8ca3-39406b885674

Lateral pharyngeal space is not connected directly by:

Buccal space

Sublingual space

Submandibular space

Retropharyngeal space

0

single

null

Surgery

null

82e2995c-8c88-47f9-b3d4-bcf04355a688

On abdominal ultrasound gallbladder shows diffuse wall thickening with hyperechoic nodules at neck and comet tail aifacts. The most likely diagnosis will be:

Adenomyomatosis

Adenocarcinoma of gallbladder

Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis

Cholesterol crystals

0

multi

Ans.A. AdenomyomatosisAdenomyomatosis is a benign condition characterized by hyperplastic changes of unknown etiology involving the GB wall.It causes overgrowth of the mucosa, thickening of muscular wall, and formation of intramural diveicula or sinus tracts termed as Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses.Investigations-USG- The presence of cholesterol crystals in these sinuses can result in "diamond ring sign", "V-shaped", or "comet-tail" aifacts on USG.Treatment- Cholecystectomy is indicated in symptomatic adenomyomatosis or when cholelithiasis is present.

Surgery

null

76422943-32a6-4fda-b0b2-7cac248bb79f

p' value is 0.00, then

Results are true of 99.9% of population

Test is not significant

1% of significance

There is no co-relation

0

multi

null

Dental

null

1f473717-d2b8-489e-969e-be0de6c30e86

The amino acid, which is used in the estimation of collagen is:

Hydroxyproline

Proline

Lysine

Glycine

0

single

null

Biochemistry

null

0113e4a7-b3a0-43f7-a30f-4e144fbac764

A child with Down's syndrome has Moon facies, retarded mentally and which of the facial characteristics:

Maxillary prognathism

Mandibular retrognathia

Mandibular prognathism

Maxillary hypoplasia

3

multi

null

Pathology

null

95deaff5-dc0b-42a7-b257-573f3de4c88d

Best Age to sta bone mineral density test in female.

After 50 years

After 55 years

After 60 years

After 65 years

3

single

Ans.d.After 65 yearsNOF recommends:Bone density test :In woman age 65 or older.In man age 70 or older.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

1450ca65-dcd0-49a1-bb7d-b633740c3436

Haddon matrix is related to:

Injury prevention

Communicable diseases

Maternal and child moality

Hypeensive disorders

1

single

Ans: B. Communicable diseasesHaddon matrix:Related to injury prevention.Most commonly used paradigm in injury prevention field.

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

afd502ff-b700-4ecf-acec-f849331dd1ed

Which of the following marked arrow represent lateral semicircular canal during coical mastoidectomy:

A

B

C

D

2

single

A - Incus, B - Facial nerve, C - lateral semicircular canal, D - Chorda tympani.

ENT

AIIMS 2017

a3912f88-1e01-46ed-9f13-544c1a36fbb5

Expected surgical procedure most frequently indicated for odontogenic cysts is:

Incision and drainage

Sclerosing solution

Marsupialisation

Enucleation

3

single

null

Surgery

null

775ae087-72e3-45fb-9b1d-e4a74bddc1c1

A boy complains of bleeding gums, swollen, Joints with hemorrhage into joints. His paternal and maternal uncle complains of same problem. It is due to deficiency of factor:

VIII

IX

X

VI

0

single

null

Pathology

null

c7dddaf3-1c36-425d-8208-07125d469486

Deepest layer of deep cervical fascia is

Prevertebral

Carotid sheath

Pretracheal

Temporal

0

single

Deep cervical fascia, also known as fascia colli is condensed to form 6 layers. Investing layer. Pretracheal layer. Prevertebral layer. Carotid sheath. Buccopharyngeal fascia. Pharyngobasilar fascia. Prevertebral fascia: It is the deepest layer of deep cervical fascia. It lies in front of prevertebral muscles and forms the floor of posterior triangle of neck. It is separated from pharynx and buccopharyngeal fascia by retropharyngeal space.

Anatomy

null

3513f98e-19a9-4dfd-8f49-1e8514c3907c

In the formula for urea clearance, C = U x V/P, what does U stands for:

Urinary concentration in g/24 hour

Urinary concentration in mg/ml

Urine osmolarity

Urine volume per minute

1

single

Ans: B. Urinary concentration in mg/ml(Ref: Ganong 25/p p676. 21/c p678)In given formula for measuring GFR:C = Clearance of the substanceU = Urinary concentration of the substance in mg/mlP = Plasma concentration of the substance in mg/mlV = Volume of urine

Physiology

null

aa1d43f7-96e9-46b0-9795-a78bcc1f064e

Trisodium phosphate in alginate acts as:

Retarder

Reactor

Accelerator

Plasticizer

0

single

null

Dental

null

56afd089-38a1-40c8-ad6c-fe369383198b

For measuring hardness of Co-Cr alloy, which hardness test is used?

Vicat apparatus

Cold bend

Heat and cold bend

Rockwell hardness test

3

multi

The Vicat apparatus is commonly used to measure the initial setting time of gypsum products. A method for the measurement of ductility is known as the cold bend test. Rockwell Hardness Number (RHN) Like the Brinell hardness test, a steel ball or a conical diamond point is used. However, instead of measuring the diameter of the impression, the depth is measured directly by a dial gauge on the instrument. Application: The Rockwell test has a wider application for materials, since Brinell test is unsuitable for brittle materials as well as plastic materials. Ref- Mannapallil BASIC DENTAL MATERIALS P:24

Dental

null

8e7413da-351b-468d-8168-961cd50bda0a

A patient presented with intermittent fever, no weight loss, no anorexia, but with a retroperitoneal mass. Peripheral smear findings were normal. Gross & microscopy of the mass is given. What's the diagnosis?

NHL

Castleman disease

Angiolymphoid hyperplasia

Ig G4 disease

1

single

Onion skin appearance of lymph node is characteristic for Castleman disease It is alympho proliferative disorder. It has 2 variants: Unicentric Has 2 variants: 1)Highly vasculara More common , patients are asymptomatic Histology: -Twinning- Presence of two germinal centers -Onion skin pattern-Lymphocytes causes thickening of mantle zone -Lollipop lesions- Sclerosed blood vessel that infiltrate lymph node germinal center Multicentric ?Associated with immune suppression ?Presents as : Hepatomegaly Splenomegaly Night sweats Fever 2)Plasma cell varianta Less common, patients are symptomatic: - Weight loss -Night sweats -Fever Histology: Plasma cells in interfollicular areas causing hyperplasia of germinal center Lymph node architecture is distoed but LN is preserved in unicentric variant

Pathology

AIIMS 2018

87a02021-923f-4cd0-b93d-bfb486c0aa29

One day after complete mouth extraction, blue black spots are seen on the neck of the patients. These spots indicate:

Thrombocytopenic purpura

Postoperative ecchymosis

Impaired blood circulation

Cellulitis

1

single

null

Surgery

null

d95b767a-8152-4636-8d0a-0da18b352aa1

painful crater like 1.5 cm ulcer develops within one week on the hard palate mucosa of a 40 year old female. The most likely diagnosis is:

Actinomycosis

Squamous cell carcinoma

Pleomorphic adenoma

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

3

single

null

Pathology

null

cc1da36a-147f-4b74-9015-b7640ebb7ead

Most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly age group ?

Hypeension

Vascular malformation

Coagulopathy

Amyloid angiopathy

3

single

Though hypeension is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage, the usual site for it is putamen, thalamus, pons and cerebellum. But lobar hemorrhage in elderly is most commonly due to cerebral amyloid angiopathy, where there is amyloid deposition in the walls of cerebral aeries following aeriolar degeneration.

Medicine

AIIMS 2017

035a6e66-f990-4d45-abd9-9855059b027a

Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis:

Staphylococcus albus.

Streptococcus faecalis.

Salmonella typhi.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

2

single

null

Medicine

null

b69ced59-82cc-43b7-b3b8-829f8ee8930b

Platelet derived growth factor is released in vessels from:

Endothelial cells

Fibroblasts

Macrophages

Alpha granules

3

single

Platelet activation: The adherent platelets get activated, undergo a shape change and degranulate. The granules in the platelets can be Alpha granules having P-selectin, fibrinogen, fibronectin, factors V and VIII, platelet factor 4, platelet-derived growth factor, and transforming growth factor-β. Delta granules or delta bodies having ADP, ATP, ionized calcium, histamine, serotonin, and epinephrine.

Pathology

null

7f982d0f-5ee4-4069-b03b-dab4d9130c37

Down syndrome is caused by all except:

Trisomy of 21 chromosome

Mosaicism of 21 chromosome

Robertsonian translocation of 21.21, 21.18

Deletion of 21

3

multi

Three cytogenetic variants cause Down syndrome: Trisomy 21 Chromosomal translocation Mosaicism Trisomy 21 accounts for nearly 95% of all patients with Down syndrome. It is now generally accepted that there are at least three forms of Down syndrome: One in which there is the typical trisomy 21 with 47 chromosomes (accounting for about 95% of cases) Another termed the translocation type, in which there appear to be only 46 chromosomes, although the extra chromosome material of number 21 is translocated to another chromosome of G or D group, either 21/22 translocation or 21/21 translocation (about 3% of cases) Another that is the result of chromosomal mosaicism (about 2%) Rajendran R. Shafer's textbook of oral pathology. Edition 7. Page 729

Pathology

null

53925f03-9145-4ca4-97ea-2e9f154fd36c

Which of the following is the most common organism found in retreatment cases of periapical abscess?

E. faecalis

Trepenoma denticola

S. mutans

Actinomyces

0

single

PERSISTENT APICAL PERIODONTITIS It is post-treatment apical periodontitis in an endodontically treated tooth (re-treatment case). Enterococcus faecalis is found the most consistently reported organism in persistent apical periodontitis.

Dental

null

be3afdad-0f5b-4443-8293-746222d73844

Maximum chances of fracture are present when which of these forces are present on a bone:

Tension

Torsion

Compression

Either of the three

0

single

null

Surgery

null

9baccdab-543d-4508-8192-493ac564b258

Phrenic nerve chiefly supplies?

Stomach

Diaphragm

Oesophagus

Ileum

1

single

null

Anatomy

null

aac3f7a9-9821-4f19-a131-0f6661d13562

Regional Odontodysplasia is most common in

Mandibular premolar

Mandibular canine

Mandibular third molar

Maxillary central incisor

3

single

null

Pathology

null

7bb79319-a8ea-4023-89bb-2423f53fc121

During surgical excision of the parotid gland the following structures may be damaged:

Lesser occipital nerve, hypoglossal nerve, chorda tympani

Facial nerve and auriculotemporal nerve

Submandibular duct

Cervical fascia

1

single

null

Surgery

null

dda876e4-c6ba-4136-bf0c-cc5dac90a7a4

A dye injected in to space to see the joint is known as:

Arthrography

Arthroscopy

Arthroplasty

Orthopantogram

0

single

null

Surgery

null

a86db080-2d2a-4eb2-abb0-11de110167f8

An elderly male presents with T3NO laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the management?

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy

Concurrent chemoradiotherapy

Radical radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy

Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy

1

single

Ans. b. Concurrent chemoradiotherapyAn elderly male presents with T3N0 laryngeal carcinoma. Treatment is concunent chemoradiotherapy.'Advanced laryngeal cancers are ofien treated by combining radiation with concurrent chemotherapy for larynxpresemation and total laryngectomy for bulky T4 disease or salvage.''Concurrent radiation therapy plus Cisplatin resulted in a statistically higher percentage ofpatients with an intact larynxat I0 years.'

ENT

null

0bf8959c-a410-42df-bde1-678d021599d9

Which is the only anterior teeth with Mesiodistal size more than Cervicoincisal dimension

Deciduous lower central incisor

Permanent lower central incisor

Deciduous upper lateral incisor

Permanent upper lateral incisor

2

single

null

Dental

null

2fad53ed-ad7b-4194-8316-7fd39b1089a4

Which of the following abnormalities is commonly seen in a fetus with congenital CMV infection:

Colitis

Myocarditis

Blood dyscrasias

Pulmonary cyst

2

single

Manifestation of congenital CMV infection: Still birth Microcephaly Choroidoretinitis Deafness Hemolytic anemia (Blood dyscrasias simply stands for any hematological disorder) Pneumonitis Thrombocytopenia with petechiae and purpura IUGR Hepatosplenomegaly Icterus Mental retardation Have intracranial calcifications

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

b55d9ee8-ae0e-4a10-a2a5-f8553f94abec

White radiating Lines can be observed in case of Lesions of

Lichen planus

Erythema multiforme

Pemphigus

Leukoplakia

0

single

null

Pathology

null

b0551251-13ff-4dba-b185-e8b5c850d656

Which among the following is not true about ankylosing spondylitis?

Enthesis is the primary site of pathology

More common in Females

TNF plays an impoant role in the pathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis

Sacroiliitis is the earliest manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis

1

multi

Ans.B. More common in FemalesAnkylosing spondylitis is more common in males.(M:F is between 2:1 to 3:1).There is preferential involvement of entheses ( Site of attachment of ligament or tendon to the bone).TNF a plays a major role in immunopathogenesis.Sacroiliitis is often the first manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis. Synovitis, pannus, subchondral granulation tissue and marrow edema, enthesitis and chondroid differentiation are also found.

Surgery

null

1b7a2a1c-6321-4541-b649-7db8418c38da

Cephalosporin active against pseudomonas aeruginosa

Cefoperazone

Cefaclor

Ceftriaxone

Cefotaxime

0

single

null

Pharmacology

null

53b25799-4578-4b4b-aa22-5c9aa6b4f62c

The least effect on the prognosis of a periodontal disease is

Suppuration from the pocket

Furcation involvement

Alveolar bone loss

Co-operation and motivation of the patient

0

single

null

Dental

null

b057a579-865e-4b5d-bd32-c859e19078c6

Occulomotor nerve passes through

Foramen rotundum

Superior orbital fissure

Inferior orbital fissure

Foramen ovale

1

single

null

Anatomy

null

8695d0f1-5264-4bb9-acd8-9d9b634f2b4c

A child presents to the emergency with a history of ingestion of button battery, on X-ray it was found in the stomach or duodenum. What is the next step?

Endoscopic removal of battery

Wait and watch

Repeat X-ray after 5 days

Immediate laparotomy

1

multi

Ans: B. Wait and watchRef: NBIH Button bsttery ingestion triage and treatment guideline.The management of a Button battery ingestion depends upon the anatomical site of the impacted battery.Button batteries that have cleared the stomach usually pass through the gastrointestinal tract within one week without complications.Follow-up radiographs should be performed in asymptomatic patients who have not passed the battery by 10 to l4 days, regardless ofsize or earlier if patient becomes symptomatic.

Pediatrics

null

08773184-d813-48bd-b8ac-fdcaab87d67c

A child with tetralogy of fallot uses which of the following positions –

Supine

Prone

Squatting

Leaning forwards

2

multi

The patients of TOF assume a sitting posture (squatting) as soon as they get dyspneic. TOF is the commonest congenital lesion in which squatting is noted.

Pediatrics

null

13843218-9b0f-452b-868b-b8d3b317730a

True about Arrangement of hydroxyapatite crystals in Enamel rods?

In center orientation of hydroxyapatite crystal is 0 degree

Orientation of hydroxyapatite crystals at periphery is 45 degree

Both

None

2

multi

null

Dental

null

7a660bba-aabd-448d-9d13-38ee7837c97f

Predisposing clinical condition for endodontic flare up?

Acute periapical abscess

Acute apical periodontitis

Asymptomatic necrotic pulp with periapical lesion

Pain and swelling since the treatment

2

single

null

Dental

null

d0b07125-fc73-4874-9663-29e54ed5413a

Regarding ASO titre all are seen except –

ASO can be increased in school children

May be negative in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

ASO titre included in major criteria in jones criteria

May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis

2

multi

Evidence of antecedent group 'A' streptococcal infection Positive throat cultures or rapid streptococcal antigen tests for group A streptococcoci are less reliable for antecedent infection capable of producing rheumatic fever because they do not distinguish between recent infection and chronic pharyngeal carriage (as many people are carrier of this bacteria). Antibody tests are the most reliable laboratory evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection capable of producing g acute rheumatic fever. The onset of clinical manifestations of acute rheumatic fever coincides with the peak of the streptococcal antibody response. The antibodies used commonly for serological tests are antistreptolysin 0 (ASO), antideoxyribonuclease (Anti-DNAse) and antihyaluronidase. ASO titre is well standardized and therefore is most widely used test. It has following features. Elevated in 80% of patients with acute rheumatic fever (So, 20% patients do not show elevated titre) Sensitivity is 80%. It is elevated in 20% of normal individuals perticularly in healthy school children of elementary school age (20% false positive). ASO titers of at least 333 Todd units in children and 250 Todd units in adults are considered elevated. It is included in minor criteria of jones criteria (not in major criteria). Anti DNAse B titers of 240 Todd units or greater in children and 1200 Todd units or greater in adults are considered elevated. If three antibody tests (ASO, anti-DNAse and anti-hyaluronidase) are used simultaneously, a titer for at least one antibody test is elevated in 95% of cases —> Sensitivity of combined three antibody tests is 95%. The streptozyme test is a simple slide agglutination test for extra-cellular streptococcal antigen absorbed to red blood cells (passive hemagglutination) test. It is almost 100% sensitive but specificity is very low and it is less standardized and less reproducible than the other antibody tests. Therefore, it should not be used as a diagnostic test for evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection. About option 'b' ASO titre may not be elevated in PSGN if PSGN develops secondary to skin infection.

Pediatrics

null

1c25695e-3dfc-4f00-815a-7c6dfa0478fc

28 yr with infeility lapro tube uterus healthy ovary diagnosis -

PCOS

Ovarian cyst

Fibroid

Endometriosis

3

single

Ans.D. EndometriosisIn endometriosis, cause of infeility isImmobility of tubesAnovulationTubal blockMale factor: 30%Tubal, uterine & peritoneal factor: 25%Ovarian factor: 25%Cervical factor: 10%Unexplained factor: 10%

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

null

a43a0fc3-9d61-45a2-8ebd-f90bb31af019

Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid aery in Kiesselbach's plexus?

Anterior Ethmoidal aery

Sphenopalatine aery

Greater palatine aery

Septal branch of superior labial aery

0

single

NASAL SEPTUM Internal Carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal aery 2. Posterior ethmoidal aery External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Sphenopalatine aery (branch of maxillary aery) gives Nasopalatine and posterior medial nasal branches. 2. Septal branch of greater palatine aery (branch of maxillary aery). 3. Septal branch of superior labial aery (branch of facial aery). LATERAL WALL Internal carotid System 1. Anterior ethmoidal 2. Posterior ethmoidal External Carotid System Branches of ophthalmic aery 1. Posterior lateral nasal branches 2. Greater palatine aery 3. Nasal branch of anterior superior dental 4. Branches of facial aery To nasal vestibule From sphenopalatine aery From maxillary aery From infraorbital branch of maxillary aery

ENT

AIIMS 2017

dd05805a-f289-42bd-8377-e0e8fdfcff8b

Excess of plasma level of lignocaine can cause cardiovascular collapse due to:

Myocardial depression

Vagal stimulation

Syncope

CN5 excitability

0

single

null

Surgery

null

e750cd52-447e-4ae7-9948-156375e177bb

Best noninvasive investigation to check for bility of myocardium is:

FDG-18 PET CT

MIBG scintigraphy

Echocardiogram

Thallium scintigraphy

0

multi

Ans: A. FDG-18 PET CT(Ref Harrison 19/e p270 e4, 18/e p1846).Best noninvasive investigation for myocardium bility check = FDG-18 PET CTViable myocardium:Non-contracting ischemic myocardium at rest.Has full potential to recover its function (On self or on revascularization).PET:Gold standard for assessment of myocardium bility.Identifies ischemic or hibernating myocardium in 10-20% of fibrotic or infracted regions.Uses thallium & technetium labeling.Positron-emitting tracer F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) assesses myocardial glucose metabolism - Hence an indicator of myocardial bility.Evaluation methods of myocardial bility:Mainly in ischemic cardiomyopathy patients.Myocardial perfusion imaging (with SPECT or PET) combined with metabolic imaging (i.e., fluorodeoxyglucose I FDGJ PET).Excellent alternative:Thallium-201 SPECT imaging (hospitals lacking PET scanning).

Radiology

null

ebd1b3d6-5161-432c-86a2-532c2ce66765

Regarding Japanese encephalitis vaccine, what is not true?

Not given for infants less than 6 months

Two primary doses given to children in the one to three year age group

Booster doses are given after I year and repeated every 3 years

In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group.

3

multi

Ans: D. In endemic areas vaccination is given to cover children between one to nine years age group.(Ref Park 24/e p303, p261; Indian Journal of Pediatrics,. Vol. 51, October 15, 2015 p785).Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine:In endemic areas, vaccine is given to cover children between 1-15 years (Not 1 to 9 yrs).2 primary doses 4 weeks apa, booster after 1 year and 3 years until the age of 10-15 years.Booster after 1 year and then repeated every 3 years.Minimum age: According to US-FDA-2 months.

Social & Preventive Medicine

null

08b59e2f-a96d-4e2a-b21b-b5292982e74a

Role of Negative reinforcement:

Makes negative to positive

Makes positive to negative

Makes negative to more negative

None of the above

2

multi

Negative reinforcer is withdrawal of thing which increases the frequency of positive behavior. It makes negative to positive. Negative reinforcement makes negative to more negative, means if the patient shows tamper tantrum, you send the patient back without treatment, this will be negative reinforcement for him to escape from situation.

Dental

null

1740412a-70a5-4b66-9bc0-dc70e03c4c27

All are features of reversible cell injury EXCEPT

ER swelling

Dens deposition of mitochondria

Bleb

Detachment of ribosome

1

multi

Answer- B. DENS DEPOSITION OF MITOCHONDRIAThe ultrastructural changes (seen on electron microscopy) are:-Plasma membrane alterations - Blebbing blunting loss of microvilli.Mitochondrial changes - Swelling, small amorphous densities.Dilatation of ER and detachment of ribosomeNuclear alterations

Pathology

null

348d0bf0-fdef-44b2-be0d-0681139cf03e

Which of the following is urethane dimethacrylate (UDMA) resin based endosealer?

Endorez

Real seal

Raeko sealer

Tubli seal

0

single

null

Dental

null

8518813c-bb02-4357-94ba-ef5201c7c983

A patient is diagnosed of oral cancer of stage T3N2M0

Surgery

Surgery + radiotherapy

Chemotherapy alone

Surgery + chemotherapy

1

single

null

Pathology

null

64400a13-aab9-46fd-8609-ac725bb8e72e

GFR is increased by all except?

Increased renal blood flow

Efferent aeriole constriction

Renal stone in ureter

Decreased oncotic pressure

2

multi

Increased blood flow to glomerular capillaries causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure causing increased GFR. The efferent aeriole constriction also causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure causing increased GFR. Plasma colloid oncotic pressure is the force that opposes the filtration; when it is decreased, GFR increased. In case of nephrolithiasis or renal stone, there will be decreased flow of tubular fluid which causes fluid accumulation in Bowman's capsule leading to increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule which opposes filtration causing decreased GFR Net filtration pressure = PG -PB - pG PG: glomerular hydrostatic pressure PB: hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule PG: Colloid osmotic pressure of glomerular capillary plasma proteins GFR = KFX net filtration pressure KF = capillary filtration coefficient

Physiology

AIIMS 2018

2df7addb-dc8a-4428-8f08-09327d0a7ccc

Muscle that attaches to zygomatic process of maxilla:

Masseter

Buccinator

Middle temporal

Medial pterygoid

0

single

null

Anatomy

null

bf5ce756-8fbf-432d-aaa2-e8b26afe711b

Patient complaint of loose immediate dentures today morning, and also told that this happened 2-3 days back also. What could be the possible reason

Patient forgot how to insert the denture

Continuous healing of defect

Due to shrinkage of resin

Due to reduction of diameter of defect

1

single

null

Dental

null

f90b63af-1880-4eee-9405-bb1ef156af1e

All of the following are true about the given instrument except

Can be done in prone or lateral position

To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders

Breath holding not necessary

Platelet count of 40000 is a contraindication

3

multi

Given instrument is Bone marrow biopsy needle Bone marrow biopsy can be done in prone or lateral position. Most common site is posterior iliac crest. In obese person, preferred site is anterior superior iliac spine In newly born, preferred site is superficial bone i.e. tibia. To find out infiltrative and granulomatous disorders. Breath holding is not necessary in bone marrow biopsy. During biopsy of other organs like liver , breath holding is necessary. During any bleeding disorder, RBC or WBC disorder or hypo activity of bone marrow, bone marrow biopsy is done . Even in severe thrombocytopenia , Bone marrow biopsy is done.

Pathology

AIIMS 2019